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General Studies
Q1. The Indian Constitution originally consisted of __ Articles.
(A) 395
(B) 385
(C) 365
(D) 375
Answer: (A) 395
Explanation: 395. The original text of the Constitution contained 395 Articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules (came into effect on 26 January 1950). Now 448 Articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules.
Q2. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgements or orders ?
(A) Article 138
(B) Article 135
(C) Article 136
(D) Article 137
Answer: (D) Article 137
Explanation: Article 137. Article 138 – Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Article 135 – Jurisdiction and powers of the Federal Court under existing law to be exercisable by the Supreme Court. Article 136 – Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court.
Q3. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to establish additional courts for better administration of laws made by it
(A) Article 246
(B) Article 248
(C) Article 253
(D) Article 247
Answer: (D) Article 247
Explanation: Article 247. Article 246 – Subject-matter of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures of States. Article 248 – Residuary powers of legislation. Article 253 – Legislation for giving effect to international agreements. Article 98 – Secretariat of Parliament.
Q4. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits religious instructions in any state – funded educational institution ?
(A) Article 27
(B) Article 28
(C) Article 29
(D) Article 30
Answer: (B) Article 28
Explanation: Article 28. Other Articles-Article 27 – Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion. Article 29 – Protection of interests of minorities. Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
Q5. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the removal and suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission?
(A) Article 320
(B) Article 324
(C) Article 317
(D) Article 315
Answer: (C) Article 317
Explanation: Article 317. Removal of UPSC members by President on the ground of proven misbehaviour by the Supreme Court or if he is adjudged an insolvent. Part XIV (Articles 315 to 323) – Establishment of UPSC for Union and Public Service Commission for each state. Article 320 – Functions of Public Service Commission.
Q6. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the organisation, composition and powers of the state legislature?
(A) Part IV
(B) Part VI
(C) Part III
(D) Part V
Answer: (B) Part VI
Explanation: Part VI Article (152 to 237). Article 168 Constitution of Legislatures in States. Article 169 deals with abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in states. Article 170 – Composition of the Legislative Assemblies. Article 171 – Composition of the legislative Councils. Article 172 – Duration of State Legislatures.
Q7. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides that there shall be a Legislative Assembly for the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
(A) Article 231AA
(B) Article 233AA
(C) Article 239AA
(D) Article 237AA
Answer: (C) Article 239AA
Explanation: Article 239AA. It empowers the Lieutenant Governor to refer a difference of opinion on ‘any matter’ with the Council of Ministers to the President. 69th Amendment Act (1991) – A special status to the Union Territory of Delhi by designing it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Brahm Prakash was the first chief minister of Delhi.
Q8. In May 2023, the Supreme Court of India granted couples the right to get divorce on the grounds of ‘irretrievable breakdown of marriage’ under _ of the Indian Constitution.
(A) Article 142(1)
(B) Article 132(1)
(C) Article 122(1)
(D) Article 152(1)
Answer: (A) Article 142(1)
Explanation: Article 142(1). Article 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties, where, at times, the law or statute may not provide a remedy. Article 132 – Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in certain cases. Article 122 – Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament.
Q9. Which among the following is a subject of Union Lists in the Constitution of India ?
(A) Liquor
(B) Social planning
(C) Extradition
(D) Boilers
Answer: (C) Extradition
Explanation: Extradition. The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution consists of 3 lists: Union, Concurrent, and State. The Union List- 100 items The state list comprises 61 items. The concurrent list comprises 52 items. Examples – Concurrent list (education, forest, trade unions, marriage), Union list (Defence, Army, International Relations, Ports, Railways, Highways, Communication), State list (Local government, Public health and sanitation, Prisons).
Q10. As per Schedule 8 of the Indian Constitution, how many official languages are there in India?
(A) 12
(B) 42
(C) 32
(D) 22
Answer: (D) 22
Explanation: 22. Eighth Schedule (all languages) – Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri. Sindhi (21st Amendment Act of 1967). Manipuri, Nepali and Konkani (71st Amendment, 1992). Bodo, Santhali, Dogri, Maithili (92nd Amendment, 2003).
Q11. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides freedom to manage its own affairs in matters of religion?
(A) Article 30
(B) Article 5
(C) Article 26
(D) Article 210
Answer: (C) Article 26
Explanation: Article 26 – Mentioned under Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Indian constitution). Right to Freedom of religion (Article 25 to 28). Article 30 – All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Article 5 – Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution. Article 210 – Language to be used in the Legislature.
Q12. Provisions related to the seat of the “Supreme Court of India” is mentioned in which Article?
(A) Article 132
(B) Article 131
(C) Article 130
(D) Article 129
Answer: (C) Article 130
Explanation: Article 130. The Federal Court of India was established on 1 October 1937. After Independence, the Federal Court was replaced as the Supreme Court of India (28 January 1950). Other related Articles : Article 124: Establishment and Constitution of Supreme Court. Article 129: Supreme Court to be a Court of Record. Article 131: Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Article 132: Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court in appeals from High Court in certain cases.
Q13. Which among the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for the Attorney General of India
(A) 79
(B) 76
(C) 72
(D) 81
Answer: (B) 76
Explanation: Article 76. Attorney General of India – The highest law officer in the country. Appointment – By the President. Duty – As a chief legal advisor to the government of India, he advises the union government on all legal matters. Article 79 – Constitution of Parliament. Article 72 – Power of President to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
Q14. Part XVI of the Indian constitution deals with ___ .
(A) Elections
(B) Special provisions related to certain classes
(C) Constitutional amendments
(D) Special provisions related to municipal corporation
Answer: (B) Special provisions related to certain classes
Explanation: Special provisions related to certain classes (Article 330 to 342A). Article 330 – Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People. Article 338 – National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Article 338A – National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Inserted by the 89th Amendment Act 2003). Part XV (Article 324-329): Elections. Part XX (Article 368): Amendment of the Constitution. Part IXA (Article 243P-243ZG): The Municipalities.
Q15. Which of the following Articles of the Indian constitution provides for the National commission for Scheduled Castes ?
(A) Article 337
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 338
Answer: (D) Article 338
Explanation: Article 338 – It is a constitutional body established with a view to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural interests. Other Commissions – National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Article 338A) and National Commission for Backward Classes (Article 338B). Article 343 – Official language of the Union. Article 344 – Commission and Committee of Parliament on Official Language. Article 337 – Special provisions in terms of educational grants/subsidies provided to the Anglo-Indian population of India.
Q16. Which Bill was passed in the Parliament in 2022 to authorize payment of certain sums from and out of the Consolidated Fund of India for the services of the financial year 2022-23?
(A) The Finance Bill
(B) The Electricity (Amendment) Bill
(C) The Appropriation Bill
(D) The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill
Answer: (C) The Appropriation Bill
Explanation: The Appropriation Bill (Article 114) – The government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund only after receiving approval from Parliament. It is introduced in the Lok Sabha. Vote on Account (Article 116) is a grant in advance for the central government to meet short-term expenditure. Finance Bill – Give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the following financial year.
Q17. Provisions related to the Municipalities are mentioned under which part of the Indian constitution?
(A) Part IXA
(B) Part VII
(C) Part V
(D) Part XII
Answer: (A) Part IXA
Explanation: Part IXA. The Municipalities (Urban Local Governments) is a system of Democratic Decentralisation. It was added through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. Part VII – Repealed by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment Act, 1956). Part V – Provisions for the functioning of the Union Government. Part XII – Laws pertaining to Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits for Republic of India.
Q18. Which part of the Indian constitution talks about the Union Territories ?
(A) Part VI
(B) Part X
(C) Part XI
(D) Part VIII
Answer: (D) Part VIII
Explanation: Part VIII (Article 239 – 241). List of Union Territories: Andaman and Nicobar, Chandigarh, Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Lakshadweep and Puducherry. Other Parts: Part VI (The States), Part X (Scheduled and Tribal Areas), Part XI – Relations Between The Union And The States.
Q19. Which Article of the Indian constitution mentions that it is duty of the Union government to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance?
(A) 353
(B) 356
(C) 355
(D) 358
Answer: (C) 355
Explanation: Article 355. Other Articles – Article 353 – States about the Effect of the proclamation of emergency. Article 356 – States about the Provision in case of failure of constitutional machinery in the state (president rule). Article 358 – It deals with the suspension of fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 of the constitution.
Q20. Which Article of the constitution of India is related to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India Audit reports?
(A) 148
(B) 150
(C) 151
(D) 149
Answer: (C) 151
Explanation: 151. Part V: The Union, Chapter V : Comptroller and Auditor – General (CAG) of India (Article 148 – 151): Responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments and public sector organisations and for maintaining the accounts of State governments. The reports of the CAG are taken into consideration by the Public Accounts Committees. Article 150: Form of accounts of the Union and of the States. Article 149: Duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General. Article 148: Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Q21. In which of the following Articles of the Indian constitution is the procedure for impeachment of the President of India mentioned?
(A) 60
(B) 59
(C) 62
(D) 61
Answer: (D) 61
Explanation: Article 61. Other ArticlesArticle 60: Oath or affirmation by the President, Article 59: Conditions of the President’s office, Article 62: Time of holding the election to fill the vacancy in the office of President and the term of office of the person elected to fill the casual vacancy.
Q22. Which Article of the Indian constitution specifies the composition of the Council of States?
(A) Article 80
(B) Article 395
(C) Article 51A
(D) Article 12
Answer: (A) Article 80
Explanation: Article 80. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President. Rajya Sabha members are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies using a method of proportional representation. Every second year, one-third of Rajya Sabha members retire. Article 81: Composition of the House of the People or Lok Sabha (Lower House). The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 550 members.
Q23. Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation comes under which list of the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution ?
(A) Union list
(B) Concurrent list
(C) State list
(D) Transferred list
Answer: (A) Union list
Explanation: Union list (100) – Defence, Army, International Relations, Ports, Railways, Census, Communication, Central Bureau of Investigation etc. State list (61) – Public order, Police, Public health and sanitation, Hospitals and dispensaries, Agriculture, State Public Service Commission, etc. Concurrent list (52) – Education, Forest, Trade unions, population control and family planning, Marriage, Adoption, etc. Seventh schedule under Article 246 of the constitution deals with the division of powers between the union and the states.
Q24. State Public Service Commission comes under which list of seventh schedule of the Indian constitution ?
(A) Transferred list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) Union list
Answer: (B) State list
Explanation: State list (61) .
Q25. Which of the following comes under the 5th schedule of the Indian constitution?
(A) Provisions related to Schedule Areas and Scheduled Tribes
(B) Provisions related to Tribal areas in states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
(C) Provisions related to Oaths or Affirmations
(D) Provisions related to Languages
Answer: (A) Provisions related to Schedule Areas and Scheduled Tribes
Explanation: Article 244 (1) – Mentions scheduled areas. 5th schedule administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States mentioned in 6th schedule. 6th Schedule: administration of the tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Article 244(2) – mentions tribal areas. 8th Schedule – Provisions related to Languages. 3rd Schedule Provisions related to Oaths or Affirmations.
Q26. The part VII of the Indian constitution has been omitted. It is related with which of the following?
(A) Provision relating to property
(B) States in part B of the first schedule
(C) Armed forces in states in part A of the second schedule
(D) Reservation for Anglo – Indian communities in parliament
Answer: (B) States in part B of the first schedule
Explanation: States in part B of the first schedule (Article 238). Provision relating to property – constitutional right under Part XII , Article 300A ( Added by 44th Amendment Act, 1978).
Q27. Which Article of the Indian Constitution specifies Hindi as the official language of the Union?
(A) Article 51A
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 80
Answer: (C) Article 343
Explanation: Article 343. Language (8th Schedule, Part XVII and Articles 343 to 351). Initially, the constitution included 14 languages. Later 8 other languages were added in the 8th schedule.
Q28. The Indian parliament has power to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse through which Article of the Indian constitution?
(A) 304
(B) 300 A
(C) 303
(D) 302
Answer: (D) 302
Explanation: Article 302. Part XIII (Article 301-307) – Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India. Article 304: Restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse among States. Article 303: Restrictions on the legislative powers of the Union and of the States with regard to trade and commerce. Article 300A: Persons not to be deprived of property save by authority of law.
Q29. Which Article of the Indian constitution states that “Governor has power to promulgate ordinances during recess of legislature”?
(A) 212
(B) 214
(C) 213
(D) 210
Answer: (C) 213
Explanation: Article 213. The governor can promulgate an ordinance when the state legislature is not in session. These ordinances should be approved by the state government within 6 weeks from its re-coordination. Article 210 – Language to be used in the Legislature. Article 212 – Courts not to inquire into proceedings of the Legislature. Article 214 – High Courts for States.
Q30. Part V chapter II of the Indian constitution does not include which of the following provisions?
(A) Joint sitting of both house of Parliament in certain cases
(B) Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament
(C) Language to be used in Parliament
(D) Restriction on discussion in Parliament
Answer: (B) Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament
Explanation: Constitution of India, Chapter II, Parliament (Article 79 – 88) : Article 79 – Constitution of Parliament, Article 80 – Composition of the Council of States, Article 82 – Readjustment after each census, Article 83 – Duration of Houses of Parliament, Article 84 – Qualification for membership of Parliament, Article 86 – Right of President to address and send messages to Houses, Article 87 – Special address by the President, Article 88 – Rights of Ministers and Attorney-General as respects Houses.
Q31. Article 243K of the Indian constitution is related with which of the following ?
(A) Durations of panchayat, etc.
(B) Grounds of disqualification from membership of Panchayat.
(C) Reservation of seats in Panchayat.
(D) Election to the Panchayats.
Answer: (D) Election to the Panchayats.
Explanation: Election to the Panchayats. Panchayati Raj is a three-tiered administrative framework in India that focuses on rural development. The Panchayati Raj is a system of local self-government that is used to build districts, zones, and villages. Article – 243E: Duration of Panchayats. Article – 243D: Reservation of seats in Panchayat Article – 243F: Grounds of disqualification from membership of Panchayat.
Q32. Article 72 of the Indian constitution is related with the power of the ______to grant pardons, etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C) President
Explanation: President. This pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary. Article-52: There shall be a President of India. Article-60: Oath or affirmation by the President. Article 111 – Assent to bills. Article 123- Ordinance making power of the president. Emergency powers of the President: (three types) National Emergency (Article 352), President’s Rule (Article 356), Financial Emergency (Article 360).
Q33. Article 350A of the Indian constitution is related with______.
(A) Special officers for linguistic minorities
(B) Facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage
(C) Direction for development of the Hindi language
(D) Language to` be used in Supreme Court and High Courts of India
Answer: (B) Facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage
Explanation: Article – 350 : Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances. Article – 350B: Special Officer for linguistic minorities. Article- 351: Directive for development of the Hindi language. Article 348 (1)(a): All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court, shall be in English language.
Q34. Which Article of the Indian constitution is related with the special provision with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat?
(A) Article 371
(B) Article 386
(C) Article 377
(D) Article 380
Answer: (A) Article 371
Explanation: Article 371.
Q35. Which part of the Constitution of India consists of the idea of a Welfare State?
(A) Fundamental Duties
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Preamble
Answer: (C) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy is mentioned in Part IV, Article 36–51. Article 38 gives the idea of a Welfare State. The directive principles of state policy are borrowed from Ireland. Fundamental Duties (Part IV A, Article 51A). Fundamental Rights (Part III, Article 12-35). A preamble is an introductory statement in a document that explains the document’s philosophy and objectives.
Q36. Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the __.
(A) Attorney General of India
(B) President of India
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Advocate General of the State
Answer: (C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Explanation: Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Article 148) : Head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and bulwarks of the democratic system of government in India. Attorney General of India (Article 76) : Highest law officer of India. Advocate General of State (Article 165) : Highest law officer of State.
Q37. How many types of writs can be issued under Article 32 and 226 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
Answer: (B) Five
Explanation: Five. Articles 32 (Heart and Soul of Indian Constitution) – Supreme Court has the authority to issue writs and Article 226 – High Court has the authority to issue a writ. Writs – Habeas corpus (to have the body of), Mandamus (We Command), Prohibition (to forbid), Certiorari (to be certified or to be informed) and Quo-warranto (By what authority or warrant).
Q38. Which Article of the Constitution does India mention that business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or English?
(A) Article 120
(B) Article 121
(C) Article 122
(D) Article 119
Answer: (A) Article 120
Explanation: Article 120. Article 121 – Restriction on discussion in Parliament. Article 122 – Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament. Article 119 – Regulation by law of procedure in Parliament in relation to financial business.
Q39. Which Article of Indian constitution is related with the Special provisions with respect to the State of Sikkim?
(A) Article 371C
(B) Article 371
(C) Article 371F
(D) Article 371A
Answer: (C) Article 371F
Explanation: 371 F – Sikkim (36th Amendment Act, 1975). Article 371 of the Constitution includes special provisions for 11 states (6 states of the Northeast). Article 371 – provisions for Maharashtra and Gujarat. Article 371 A – Nagaland (13th Amendment Act, 1962). 371 B – Assam (22nd Amendment Act, 1969). 371 C – Manipur (27th Amendment Act, 1971). 371 D – Andhra Pradesh and Telangana (32nd. Amendment Act, 1973). 371 E – To establish Central University in Andhra Pradesh. 371 G – Mizoram (53rd. Amendment Act, 1986). 371 H – Arunachal Pradesh (55th Amendment Act, 1986). 371 I – Goa.
Q40. Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the National Commission for Scheduled Castes established?
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 338
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 335
Answer: (B) Article 338
Explanation: Article 338. By 89th Amendment, 2003 the erstwhile National Commission for SC and ST was replaced by two separate Commissions from the year 2004 : National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) (Article – 338) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) (Article 338-A).
Q41. Which Part of the Indian Constitution is known as ‘Magna Carta of India’ ?
(A) Part VI
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Answer: (C) Part III
Explanation: Part III (The Fundamental Rights, Articles 12-35). ‘Magna Carta’, the Charter of Rights issued by King John of England in 1215 was the first written document relating to the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
Q42. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the power to the President to convene a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament?
(A) Article 331
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 105
(D) Article 85
Answer: (B) Article 108
Explanation: Article 108. Article 105 – Powers, privileges, etc. of Parliament and its members.
Q43. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Conduct of Business of the Government of a State?
(A) Article 165
(B) Article 163
(C) Article 166
(D) Article 164
Answer: (C) Article 166
Explanation: Article-166. Article-163 (Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor), Article-164 (Other provisions as to Ministers), Article-165 (Advocate – General for the State).
Q44. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the appointment of ad-hoc judges?
(A) Article 126
(B) Article 125
(C) Article 128
(D) Article 127
Answer: (D) Article 127
Explanation: Article 127. Article 125: talks about the financial privileges and allowances that are defined for the judges of the Supreme Court. Article 126: Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India. Article 128: Attendance of retired judges at sitting of the Supreme Court.
Q45. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Sessions of the Parliament?
(A) Article 85
(B) Article 89
(C) Article 90
(D) Article 101
Answer: (A) Article 85
Explanation: Article 85 – Sessions of Parliament, prorogation, and dissolution. A session is a period during which a House meets almost every day uninterruptedly to manage the business. Article 90 – Vacation and resignation of (and removal from) the office of Deputy Chairman. Article 101- Vacation of seats in Parliament.
Q46. Which chapter of the Constitution of India, discusses the Articles of Parliament ?
(A) Chapter III
(B) Chapter I
(C) Chapter II
(D) Chapter IV
Answer: (C) Chapter II
Explanation: Chapter II (79-122). Part V – The Union of Indian Constitution Chapter II deals with the Articles of Parliament . Chapter I (The Executive; Articles 52 to 78); Chapter III: Legislative powers of the President; Article 123); Chapter IV (The Union Judiciary; Articles 124 – 147). Chapter V (Comptroller and Auditor – General of India (CAG); Articles 148 to 151).
Q47. The Article of the Indian Constitution that deals with all the executive powers of the Governor is __
(A) Article 150
(B) Article 157
(C) Article 154
(D) Article 156
Answer: (C) Article 154
Explanation: Article 154- Executive power of Governor. Article 150 – Form of accounts of the Union and of the States. Article 157 – Qualifications for appointment as Governor. Article 156 – Term of office of Governor.
Q48. Which Part of the Indian Constitution provides for the Union Public Service Commission?
(A) Part X
(B) Part VIII
(C) Part XVI
(D) Part XIV
Answer: (D) Part XIV
Explanation: Part XIV. Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is an independent constitutional body. The provisions regarding the composition of UPSC, the appointment, and removal of its members, and the powers and functions of UPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323. PART X: The Scheduled and Tribal areas. PART XVI: Special Provisions relating to certain classes. PART VIII: The Union Territories.
Q49. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Union Executive ?
(A) Articles 38 to 50
(B) Articles 52 to 78
(C) Articles 80 to 86
(D) Articles 112 to 118
Answer: (B) Articles 52 to 78
Explanation: Article 52 to 78 (Part V). Articles 80 to 86 (Part V) deals with the general provisions of the Union Parliament. Articles 112 to 118 (Part V) deal with the legislative procedures of the Union Parliament.
Q50. Who termed Article 32 as the ‘heart and soul of the Constitution of India’?
(A) MV Pylee
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) BR Ambedkar
(D) Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer: (C) BR Ambedkar
Explanation: B.R. Ambedkar. Article 32 empowers Parliament to authorise any other court to issue these writs.