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Q1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that “Supreme Court to be a court of Record”?

(A) Article 135
(B) Article 126
(C) Article 129
(D) Article 131

Answer: (C) Article 129

Explanation: Article 129. Article 135- Jurisdiction and powers of the Federal Court under existing law to be exercisable by the Supreme Court. Article 126- Appointment of acting Chief Justice, Article 131- Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Q2. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the definition of the Money Bill ?

(A) Article 120
(B) Article 100
(C) Article 115
(D) Article 110

Answer: (D) Article 110

Explanation: Article 110. Article 100: Voting in Houses, power of Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies and quorum, Article 115: Supplementary, additional or excess grants, and Article 120: Language to be used in Parliament.

Q3. ‘All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice’. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees this right?

(A) Article 25
(B) Article 28
(C) Article 36
(D) Article 30

Answer: (D) Article 30

Explanation: Article 30. Article 36- Definition of state. Article 28- Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions. Article 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.

Q4. Article __ of the Constitution of India lays down the process for introducing changes in the Constitution.

(A) 342
(B) 351
(C) 368
(D) 374

Answer: (C) 368

Explanation: 368. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. Article 342 deals with the provisions related to Scheduled Tribes. Article 351- Directive for development of the Hindi language. Article 374- Provisions as to Judges of the Federal Court and proceedings pending in the Federal Court.

Q5. Article __ of the Indian Constitution states that ‘there shall be a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as the National Commission for Backward Classes’.

(A) 124 A (1)
(B) 243S (1)
(C) 243Y (1)
(D) 338B (1)

Answer: (D) 338B (1)

Explanation: Article 338B (1). Article 243S(1) – There shall be constituted Wards Committees, consisting of one or more wards, within the territorial area of a Municipality having a population of three lakhs or more.

Q6. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India empowered the Parliament to provide by law for continued use of English for official purposes even after 25 January 1965?

(A) Article 348 (2)
(B) Article 348 (3)
(C) Article 343 (3)
(D) Article 343 (2)

Answer: (C) Article 343 (3)

Explanation: Article 343 (3).

Q7. In which year did the Indian Constituent Assembly adopt Article 370 of the Constitution of India, ensuring special status and internal autonomy for Jammu and Kashmir?

(A) 1952
(B) 1949
(C) 1961
(D) 1950

Answer: (B) 1949

Explanation: 1949. On 6 August 2019, the Government of India revoked the special status, or autonomy, granted under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir.

Q8. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India lays down the duties and functions of the Union and State Public Service Commissions in India ?

(A) Article 320
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 308
(D) Article 316

Answer: (A) Article 320

Explanation: Article 320. Article 312- All India Services. Articles (308 – 314) – Contain provisions with regard to All India Services, Central services and state services. Article – 316 – Appointment and term of office of members.

Q9. ‘Police and Public Order’ are State subjects under the __ Schedule of the Constitution of India.

(A) 5th
(B) 9th
(C) 7th
(D) 12th

Answer: (C) 7th

Explanation: 7th. The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies allocation of powers and functions between Union & States. It contains three lists; i.e. Union List (100 subjects), State List (61 items) and Concurrent List (52 items).

Q10. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India states that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the official language of the Union?

(A) Article 343(1)
(B) Article 354(2)
(C) Article 343(2)
(D) Article 343(3)

Answer: (A) Article 343(1)

Explanation: Article 343(1). Article 343(2) -The Constitution adopted in 1950 stipulated that English and Hindi would be used for the Union’s official business for a period of fifteen years. Article 354 deals with the application of provisions related to the distribution of revenues while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation.

Q11. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India?

(A) Article 234
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 189
(D) Article 354

Answer: (B) Article 149

Explanation: Article 149. Article 234-“Appointments of persons other than district judges to the judicial service of a State shall be made by the Governor. Article 189-Voting in Houses, power of Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies and quorum. Article 354- Application of provisions relating to the distribution of revenues while a Proclamation of Emergency.

Q12. Which of the following Articles of the constitution of India provides for the creation of a GST Council?

(A) Article 246A
(B) Article 269A
(C) Article 279A
(D) Article 323A

Answer: (C) Article 279A

Explanation: Article 279A. It empowers the president to constitute a joint forum of the central and states namely, Goods and Services Tax Council. The GST Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the union and state government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax.

Q13. According to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India shall a Money Bill NOT be introduced in the Council of States?

(A) Article 109
(B) Article 354
(C) Article 298
(D) Article 193

Answer: (A) Article 109

Explanation: Article 109. Rajya Sabha (Council of States), the upper house of the Parliament of India. A money bill is a specific type of financial legislation that exclusively deals with matters related to taxes, government revenues, or expenditures.

Q14. As per Article __ of the Constitution of India, English is the official language for all the high courts in the country.

(A) 329 (1)
(B) 336 (1)
(C) 315 (1)
(D) 348 (1)

Answer: (D) 348 (1)

Explanation: Article 348 (1). 329(a) the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies, made or purporting to be made under Article 327 or Article 328, shall not be called in question in any court

Q15. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India defines for a separate secretarial staff for each House of the Parliament?

(A) Article 98
(B) Article 123
(C) Article 155
(D) Article 34

Answer: (A) Article 98

Explanation: Article 98. Article 123- Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament. Article 155- Appointment of the Governor. Article 34- Restriction on rights conferred by third Part while martial law is in force in any area.

Q16. According to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India shall a Money Bill not be introduced in a Legislative Council?

(A) Article 333
(B) Article 198
(C) Article 451
(D) Article 189

Answer: (B) Article 198

Explanation: Article 198. A money bill contains the imposition, abolition, remission, change, or regulation of any tax, according to the Constitution.

Q17. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India states that there would be no tax levied or collected EXCEPT by the authority of law?

(A) Article 107
(B) Article 123
(C) Article 265
(D) Article 301

Answer: (C) Article 265

Explanation: Article 265. Article 107- Provisions as to introduction and passing of Bills. Article 123- Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament. Article 301- Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse.

Q18. In 1959, the Central Government of India undertook the governance in Kerala under______ of the Constitution of India.

(A) Article 356
(B) Article 352
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 349

Answer: (A) Article 356

Explanation: Article 356.

Q19. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India states that ‘The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office’?

(A) Article 396
(B) Article 352
(C) Article 384
(D) Article 361

Answer: (D) Article 361

Explanation: Article 361. Protection of President and Governors and Rajprakukhs.

Q20. Which of the given Articles of the Constitution of India mentions the following? “There shall be a council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.”

(A) Article 71(1)
(B) Article 71(2)
(C) Article 74(1)
(D) Article 74(2)

Answer: (C) Article 74(1)

Explanation: Articles 74(1). Article 74 (2) – The question if any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.

Q21. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry ?

(A) Article 84
(B) Article 92
(C) Article 29
(D) Article 48

Answer: (D) Article 48

Explanation: Article 48. Article 84- Qualification for membership of Parliament. Article 92- The Chairman or the Deputy Chairman not to preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration.

Q22. Which of the following subjects is covered in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(A) Major forest produce
(B) Health and sanitation
(C) Large scale industries
(D) Police and public order

Answer: (B) Health and sanitation

Explanation: Health and sanitation. The 11th schedule of the Indian constitution was added in 1992 by the 73rd constitutional Amendment Act. This schedule contains 29 subjects. These include Rural electrification, Fisheries, drinking water, Fodder, Animal Husbandry, dairying and Poultry, Agriculture and Land Improvement.

Q23. Which of the following states is included in the sixth schedule of the Constitution of India?

(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Mizoram
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (C) Mizoram

Explanation: Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, according to Article 244 of the Indian Constitution.

Q24. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India has a provision for the Constitution of Legislatures in States?

(A) 167
(B) 168
(C) 163
(D) 165

Answer: (B) 168

Explanation: Article 168 of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a legislature in every State and it shall consist of the Governor. Article 167 casts on the Chief Minister the duty to keep the Governor informed of all decisions of the Council of Ministers in regard to administration and legislation. Article 163- There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.

Q25. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution are special provisions provided to language spoken in a section of the population?

(A) Article 337
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 347
(D) Article 374

Answer: (C) Article 347

Explanation: Article 347 Under part XVII, of the Indian constitution : Special Provision Relating to Language Spoken by a Section of the Population of a State.

Q26. Which of the following Articles is related to the Ancillary powers of the Supreme Court?

(A) Article 150
(B) Article 143
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 140

Answer: (D) Article 140

Explanation: Article 140. Article 150- Form of accounts of the Union and of the States. Article 143- Power of the President to consult the Supreme Court. Article 138- Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Q27. Which of the following schedules of the Constitution of India has been INCORRECTLY matched with its content?

(A) Second Schedule – Languages
(B) First Schedule – The states and the union territories
(C) Third Schedule – Forms of oath or affirmations
(D) Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in the council of state

Answer: (A) Second Schedule – Languages

Explanation: The second schedule of the Indian constitution talks about the salary and emoluments of the various posts such as president, vice president, chairman, deputy chairman, judges of supreme court and high court and many more. Whereas Languages have been mentioned in eight schedules.

Q28. In which year did the 44th Amendment remove the right to property from the list of fundamental rights?

(A) 1981
(B) 1975
(C) 1973
(D) 1978

Answer: (D) 1978

Explanation: 1978. The right to property was listed under Article 31 before its deletion. At present the right to property is listed under Article 300A as a legal right.

Q29. Which among the following is INCORRECT about the salient features of the 73rd Amendment Act ?

(A) The Act corresponds to Part III of the Constitution of India.
(B) The Act gives a Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
(C) The Act has added the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.
(D) It contains 29 functional items of the Panchayats and deals with Article 243 to 243(O).

Answer: (A) The Act corresponds to Part III of the Constitution of India.

Explanation: Part III (Article 12 to 35) – It contains the provision regarding Fundamental Rights. The 73rd Amendment Act – It was enacted in 1992 and came into force from April 1993. It added Part IX (Article 243-243O) to the constitution. It was enacted to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 40 on the recommendation of L.M. Singhvi Committee. Its provisions: Constitution of District Planning Committees, State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections, Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Q30. How many types of the amendment are mentioned by the Indian Constitution as per Article 368 ?

(A) Four
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Five

Answer: (B) Two

Explanation: Two. Article 368 (Part XX) – Power of parliament to amend the constitution and its procedures. Two types of amendments: The special Majority, and special majority of parliament along with the ratification of half of the state’s legislatures by a simple majority. The procedure of amending the constitution has been adopted from the constitution of South Africa.

Q31. Which of the following fundamental duties was added to the Indian Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002?

(A) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem
(B) To protect and to improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures
(C) To provide opportunities for education to his/her child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years
(D) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom

Answer: (C) To provide opportunities for education to his/her child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years

Explanation: Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A): These were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally 10 in number, 11th duty was added through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

Q32. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, which provides for the more effective prevention of certain unlawful activities of individuals and associations dealing with terrorist activities, was first put into effect in India in the year.

(A) 1991
(B) 1967
(C) 2014
(D) 1947

Answer: (B) 1967

Explanation: 1967. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act – Its main objective is dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India. It assigns absolute power to the central government and provides for death penalty and life imprisonment of culprits. Related acts – Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) 1958; Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002; The National Investigation Agency Act, 2008; The Anti-Hijacking Act, 2016.

Q33. Which of the following principles was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in the Indian Constitution?

(A) The State shall provide free and compulsory education
(B) To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines
(C) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife
(D) Reservation of SC’s and ST’s in services

Answer: (C) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife

Explanation: 42nd Amendment Act,1976 (‘Mini Constitution’): Added three new words (socialist, secular and integrity) in the Preamble. Seventh Schedule – Shifted 5 subjects from the state list to the concurrent list. Fundamental Duties – Article 51A was added. Added three new Directive Principles (equal justice and free legal aid, the participation of workers in the management of industries and protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife). Part XIV-A – Articles 323A and 323B for Tribunals were added.

Q34. The Family Courts (Amendment) Act 2022 has amended the Family Courts Act, 1984. The Act allows __ to establish Family Courts.

(A) District Courts
(B) State Governments
(C) Union Government
(D) District Collector

Answer: (B) State Governments

Explanation: State Governments. Purpose of establishment of family court – To promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs and for related matters. This bill was passed by Lok Sabha on 26th July 2022. This bill has granted statutory cover to already established family courts in Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

Q35. In August 2021, Ram Nath Kovind granted assent to which Constitution Amendment Act empowering states and UTs to identify and specify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes?

(A) 105th
(B) 104th
(C) 103rd
(D) 102nd

Answer: (A) 105th

Explanation: 105th. Reservation in India: Other Backward Class (OBCs) were included in the ambit of reservation in 1991 on the recommendations of the Mandal Commission. It recommended a 27% reservation quota for OBC. Constitutional Provisions: Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures. Article 338 – National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Article 338A – National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. Article 338B – National Commission for Backward Classes. 342A – Socially and educationally backward classes.

Q36. In which year was the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act passed?

(A) 2013
(B) 2012
(C) 2014
(D) 2015

Answer: (C) 2014

Explanation: The States Reorganisation Act (1956), under the provisions of Part I (Article 3). The State Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was constituted in 1953 appointed by Jawahar Lal Nehru. It was headed by Sir Fazal Ali. The first state formed on the linguistic basis is Andhra Pradesh (1 October 1953). Formation of other states: Gujarat and Maharashtra (1960), Karnataka (1956), Nagaland (1963), Haryana (1966), Sikkim (1975).

Q37. How many Directive Principles of the original list in the Indian Constitution were amended by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 ?

(A) Three
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Four

Answer: (B) One

Explanation: One (Article 38 was added). Directive Principles of State Policy: Part IV of the Constitution of India (Article 36–51). It was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. Article 38 – State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people. It is not enforceable by law and is non-justiciable. Article 37 – Application of the principles contained in the directive principles.

Q38. The Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 aimed at unifying the _ Municipal Corporations of Delhi to ensure a robust setup for synergised and strategic planning and optimal utilisation of resources.

(A) three
(B) two
(C) four
(D) five

Answer: (A) three

Explanation: Three. The Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 introduced in Lok Sabha aims to unify the previously trifurcated North, South, and East Delhi Municipal Corporations under the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957. It amended the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957 passed by Parliament.

Q39. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021 seeks to amend Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, __

(A) 2016
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015

Answer: (D) 2015

Explanation: 2015. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act – It replaced the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000.The bill was passed in Lok Sabha in March 2021. It allows the trial of juveniles of the age group of 16-18 years as adults. Nodal Ministry – Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Q40. Which among the following Constitutional Amendment Act of the Indian constitution reduced the age of voting from 21 to 18 for elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of states?

(A) 81st
(B) 52nd
(C) 61st
(D) 72nd

Answer: (C) 61st

Explanation: 61st. It was done by amending Article 326 of the constitution in 1988. 81st Constitutional Amendment Act 2000 was inserted to protect the reservation for SCs and STs in backlog of vacancies. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1985, known as anti-defection law and 10th schedule added in the Indian constitution. 72nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 provides reservation to Scheduled Tribes in Tripura State Legislative Assembly.

Q41. Which Constitution Amendment Act added provisions related to Municipalities in the Indian Constitution ?

(A) 97th Amendment Act 2011
(B) 71st Amendment Act 1992
(C) 74th Amendment Act 1992
(D) 69th Amendment Act 1993

Answer: (C) 74th Amendment Act 1992

Explanation: 74th Amendment Act 1992. It was passed to constitutionalize the system of urban local government. 71st Amendment Act of 1992 included Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the eighth schedule. 97th Amendment Act of 2011 granted constitutional status to cooperative societies and inserted Part IXB in the constitution. 69th Amendment Act of 1991 granted a special status to the union territory of Delhi as the national capital territory of Delhi.

Q42. Which amendment in the Indian constitution is related to extension of jurisdiction of High Courts to Union territories ?

(A) 9th Amendment
(B) 7th Amendment
(C) 1st Amendment
(D) 13th Amendment

Answer: (B) 7th Amendment

Explanation: 7th Amendment. This constitutional amendment was done in 1956 to reorganise the classes of states in the country and to change the powers and functions of the state governors. 1 st Amendment (1951) – The rights of property owners and made it more difficult for the government to enact land reform measures. It also added the Ninth Schedule, which protected certain laws from being challenged in the courts. 9 th Amendment (1960) – Facilitate the cession of the Berubari union. 13th Amendment (1962) – Nagaland was formed with special status under Article 371A.

Q43. The Seventy – First Amendment to the Indian Constitution included Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the Schedule.

(A) Eighth
(B) Sixth
(C) Fifth
(D) Seventh

Answer: (A) Eighth

Explanation: Eighth Schedule. 22 languages in this schedule. 21st Amendment Act (1967) – Include Sindhi language. 92nd Amendment Act (2003) – Include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali language. 5th schedule – The President can declare any such area or the whole state as a scheduled area. 6th schedule – Deals with administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram. 7th Schedule – Deals with the division of powers between the Union government and State governments

Q44. The Eighty – ninth Amendment Act, 2003 of the Indian Constitution established which of the following Commission ?

(A) Competition Commission of India
(B) National Commission for Backward Classes
(C) National Commission for Woman
(D) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

Answer: (D) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution.

Q45. Which among the following constitutional amendments of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of Sikkim as a state?

(A) 36th
(B) 51th
(C) 42nd
(D) 30th

Answer: (A) 36th

Explanation: 36th. 51st amendment: Reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for Scheduled Tribes in Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram as well as in the Legislative Assemblies of Meghalaya and Nagaland. 30th amendment: Abolished provision to appeal to the Supreme Court on a civil case related to a certain amount.

Q46. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Supreme Court judgement on validity of 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

A. The Supreme Court of India’s Constitutional Bench for this case consisted of 5 judges.

B. The Constitutional Bench upholds the 10% of EWS reservation with 3-2 majority

C. As per the Supreme Court judgement, the 103rd Constitutional Amendment is valid although it is violating the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution.

(A) A, B and C
(B) A and C only
(C) B and C only
(D) A and B only

Answer: (D) A and B only

Explanation: A and B only. 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act – introduced 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of India, inserted Article 15 (6) and Article 16 (6). Article 368 – empowers Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution but without affecting the ‘basic structure’.

Q47. Under which Amendment to the Constitution Act was the reservation for OBCs in educational institutions made?

(A) 95th Amendment
(B) 94th Amendment
(C) 93rd Amendment
(D) 96th Amendment

Answer: (C) 93rd Amendment

Explanation: 93rd Amendment 2005. 95th (2009): Extended the reservation of seats for the SCs and STs and special representation for the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies for a further period of ten years i.e., up to 2020 (Article 334). 96th (2011): Substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”. Consequently, the “Oriya” language in the Eighth Schedule shall be pronounced as “Odia”. 94th (2006), made provisions for the appointment of a Minister in charge of tribal welfare in the states of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.

Q48. Which Amendment to the Constitution Act led to establishment of National Judicial Appointments Commission in India ?

(A) 95th Amendment
(B) 99th Amendment
(C) 96th Amendment
(D) 97th Amendment

Answer: (B) 99th Amendment

Explanation: 99th Amendment 2014. 97th amendment 2011- It gave special constitutional status and protection to all the cooperative societies (Part IX-B) prevailing in India.

Q49. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the Union of India as a Union Territory ?

(A) 19th
(B) 14th
(C) 12th
(D) 10th

Answer: (D) 10th

Explanation: 10th Amendment (1961) incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli as the seventh Union territory of India, by amending the First Schedule to the Constitution. The Twelfth Amendment (1962) incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu as the eighth Union territory of India. The Fourteenth Amendment (1962) incorporated Pondicherry as the ninth Union territory of India. The Nineteenth Amendment (1966) abolished Election Tribunals in India and enabled trial of election petitions by High Courts.

Q50. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India declared that the Parliament has the power to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights under Article 368 and such an Act, will NOT be a law under the meaning of Article 13 ?

(A) Twenty-third Amendment
(B) Twentieth Amendment
(C) Twenty-fourth Amendment
(D) Twenty-eighth Amendment

Answer: (C) Twenty-fourth Amendment

Explanation: Twenty-fourth Amendment (1971) – Enables Parliament to dilute Fundamental Rights through Amendments of the Constitution, and empowers it to amend any provision of the Constitution. The Twenty-third Amendment, 1969, discontinued reservation of seats for the Scheduled Tribes in Nagaland, both in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly and stipulated that not more than one Anglo-Indian could be nominated by the Governor to any State Legislative Assembly. The Twentieth Amendment, 1966, inserted a new Article 233A inter alia validating the appointments, postings, promotions, and transfers of and judgements, delivered before the commencement of the present Act, by district judges .

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