Instructions :- First, read the answers to the questions carefully, then click the button below to take the Exam.
Choose Your Language |
General Studies
Q1. Which of the following is NOT a part of the infrastructure sector ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Dams
(C) Highways
(D) Power
Answer: (A) Agriculture
Explanation: Agriculture. Infrastructure is defined as the basic physical systems of a business, region, or nation and often involves the production of public goods or production processes. Examples – transportation systems, communication networks, sewage, water, and school systems etc.
Q2. The shares of the public sector and the private sector in the production of steel during 1990-91 were __, respectively.
(A) 40% and 60%
(B) 49% and 51%
(C) 46% and 54%
(D) 55% and 45%
Answer: (C) 46% and 54%
Explanation: 46% and 54%. During the 1950-60 and 1960-70, the average annual growth rate of steel production exceeded 8%. During 1970-80, the growth rate in steel production came down to 5.7% per annum and increased to 6.65% per annum during 1990-2000. During 2000-01, the shares of the public sector and the private sector in the production of steel was 32% and 68% respectively.
Q3. Which of the following is NOT true about the circular flow of income in a two-sector economy?
(A) Total production is equal to total consumption.
(B) Real Flow is more than money flow.
(C) Factor payment is equal to factor income.
(D) Consumption expenditure is equal to factor income.
Answer: (B) Real Flow is more than money flow.
Explanation: Circular flow of income – A model of the economy that shows how money flows through the different sectors of the economy. A simple economy assumes that there exist only two sectors, i.e., Households and Firms.
Q4. During the year 1991-92, the industrial production recorded a __ growth of __ .
(A) negative; 1.1 Percent
(B) positive; 1.1 Percent
(C) negative; 0.9 Percent
(D) positive; 0.6 Percent
Answer: (D) positive; 0.6 Percent
Explanation: positive; 0.6 Percent. India’s Industrial reforms of 1991 : Wide-scale reduction in the scope of industrial licensing, simplification of procedural rules and regulations, reduction of areas reserved exclusively for the public sector, disinvestment of equity of selected public sector undertakings, enhancing the limits of foreign equity participation in domestic industrial undertakings, liberalisation of trade and exchange rate policies, rationalisation and reduction of customs and excise duties and personal and corporate income-tax etc.
Q5. Which of the following is NOT an example of manufacturing activity ?
(A) Paper made from wood
(B) Mutual fund products made by combining debt and equity funds
(C) Yarn made from cotton
(D) Sugar made from sugarcane
Answer: (B) Mutual fund products made by combining debt and equity funds
Explanation: Mutual fund products made by combining debt and equity funds come under the Tertiary sector of Economy. Tertiary sectors itself do not produce goods but they are an aid or a support to the primary and secondary sectors.
Q6. Which of these is related to public goods?
(A) The principle of excludability is applicable to its consumption.
(B) There is a clear link between the producer and consumer which occurs through the payment process.
(C) Its consumption is rivalrous in nature.
(D) There is a possibility of free ridership in its consumption.
Answer: (D) There is a possibility of free ridership in its consumption.
Explanation: Public goods – A commodity or service that is provided without profit to all members of a society, either by the government or by a private individual or an organization. National defense, effective policing, and public education are all examples of public goods. Private good – A product that must be purchased to be consumed, and consumption by one individual prevents another individual from consuming it. Examples – Houses, cars, clothing, food, movie tickets etc.
Q7. Which of these is not the reason why ‘final’ goods are called so?
(A) They are meant for final use.
(B) They are the last to be consumed.
(C) They will not pass through any more stages of production.
(D) They are not processed or transformed further.
Answer: (B) They are the last to be consumed.
Explanation: Final Goods – An item that is meant for final use and will not pass through any more stages of production or transformations. Types of final goods : consumption goods and capital goods. Examples : television, ready-to-eat foods, medicines. Intermediate goods – Raw materials that a firm buys from another firm which are completely used up in the process of production. Examples: wheat, soil, crude oil, steel etc.
Q8. What was the percentage of women working in the primary sector of India as of 2011 – 2012 ?
(A) 61%
(B) 63.08%
(C) 64.5%
(D) 62.8%
Answer: (D) 62.8%
Explanation: 62.8%. Distribution of workforce in different sectors, as per 2011-12 data : Primary sector – 48.9 percent (Men – 43.6 percent), Secondary Sector :- 24.3 percent (Men – 25.9 percent, women – 20 percent), Tertiary/service Sector – 26.8 percent (Men – 30.5 percent).
Q9. Final goods are divided into:
(A) raw materials and semi-finished goods
(B) single goods and composite goods
(C) consumption goods and capital goods
(D) War goods and civilian goods
Answer: (C) consumption goods and capital goods
Explanation: Consumption goods – Directly used for the satisfaction of human wants and not used later to produce another consumer good. Example – Food, Beverages, Clothing, Vehicles. Capital goods – Assets used by businesses in the course of producing products and services for consumers. Example – Buildings, Machinery, Vehicles.
Q10. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of durable goods?
(A) They are capable of repetitive use.
(B) They are meant for repetitive purchases.
(C) They are not extinguished by immediate consumption.
(D) They have a relatively long life.
Answer: (B) They are meant for repetitive purchases.
Explanation: Durable goods (Consumer durables) : Those products that are used repeatedly over a period of time. The life of these products is high and the price paid to possess these products are also high. Example – Refrigerators, air conditioners, tools, computers, televisions, jewellery, home and office furnishings. Non – Durable goods : These goods have a shelf life of less than three years and many can be recycled. Example – Milk, vegetables, meat, fruit, paperboard, magazines.
Q11. Which of these is a component of the tertiary sector of an economy?
(A) Mining and quarrying
(B) Water supply
(C) Electricity
(D) Hotels and restaurants
Answer: (D) Hotels and restaurants
Explanation: Hotels and restaurants. Sectors of Indian Economy: The primary sector depends on natural resources like minerals, land, and water to carry out essential activities like agriculture, mining, and forestry. Secondary sector – The sector of the economy that revolves around manufacturing. Examples – Construction, fabrication, assembly, distillation, and purification. Tertiary Sector (service sector) – Tertiary Sector, also known as the service sector, is responsible for providing services to both the primary and secondary sector. Examples – Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, insurance, etc.
Q12. Which of the following can be considered a part of a parallel economy?
(A) Under declared income.
(B) Value of domestic work done by the housewife.
(C) Payments made to domestic helpers or housekeepers.
(D) Payments for private tuition.
Answer: (A) Under declared income.
Explanation: Under declared Income. Parallel Economy – The functioning of an unsanctioned sector in the economy whose objectives run in opposite to the objectives of the official, sanctioned or legitimate sector. Types of Economic systems : Capitalist, Socialist and Mixed.
Q13. Which of the following statements is/are FALSE with respect to simple model of the circular flow of economy ?
i. The aggregate consumption is more than the aggregate expenditure.
ii. There is government intervention.
iii. There are no trade activities with the rest of the world.
(A) Only i and iii
(B) Only i
(C) Only iii
(D) Only ii and iii
Answer: (B) Only i
Explanation: Only i. Circular Flow in a Two-sector Economy (with Financial Market) – households and firms. Three-sector Economy – Between Households and Government, Between Firms and Government. Four-sector Economy – Households, Firms, Government, Foreign Sector.
Q14. In which industrial policy was the investment limit for a tiny industry/unit increased to ₹2 lakh ?
(A) 1977
(B) 1991
(C) 1980
(D) 1956
Answer: (C) 1980
Explanation: 1980. Industrial Policy 1980 : This Policy focused on the promotion of economic federation and restoration of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act. Some other Industrial policies (IPs): IP, 1948 – It ushered in a mixed economic model in the country. IP, 1956 – Three schedules were laid out for the classification of industries. IP, 1977 – The Policy’s main emphasis had been the propagation of cottage and small industries. IP, 1991 – Foreign Direct investment allowed, Amendment of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act. The main goals of the New Industrial Policy (1991) were: L – Liberalisation, P – Privatisation, G – Globalisation.
Q15. Machines, tools and implements, and buildings are examples of which type of goods?
(A) Consumer goods
(B) Inferior goods
(C) Intermediate goods
(D) Capital goods
Answer: (D) Capital goods
Explanation: Capital goods – Physical assets which a company uses to produce goods and services for consumers. Inferior goods : An item that is often a substitute product whose demand drops when people’s income increases. Example – instant noodles, frozen dinners, and canned goods.
Q16. How many industries were listed in Schedule A of Industrial Policy, 1956?
(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 10
(D) 12
Answer: (B) 17
Explanation: The 1956 policy divided the industries into 3 categories based on management. Schedule A Industries: It consisted of 17 industrial areas which were under the Central Government. Schedule B Industries : It consisted of 12 industries that were left to the state government to follow up with the private sector that includes compulsory licensing provisions. Schedule C Industries: It consisted of those industries which were left out of Schedule A and B and were with the private sectors and subject to licensing and regulation under the IDR Act.
Q17. Which of the following can be considered as an example of flow variable?
(i) Production of rice
(ii) Import of cloth
(iii) Change in capital
(A) None of (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) All of (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (i) and (ii)
Answer: (C) All of (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: All of (i), (ii) and (iii). Flow variable – A quantified variable that is measured over a specified period of time. It is time bounded and expressed as per unit of time. Examples – Income, expenditure, depreciation, production, consumption, exports, rent, profit, interest. Stock variable – A quantity which is measurable at a particular point of time. Examples – Capital, wealth, foreign debts, loan.
Q18. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited comes under which sector?
(A) Co – operative sector
(B) Private sector
(C) Foreign sector
(D) Public sector
Answer: (D) Public sector
Explanation: Public sector. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is an Indian ‘Navratna’ aerospace and defence company, headquartered in Bangalore. Co-operative sector industries are operated and owned by the suppliers or producers of raw materials, workers or both. Foreign sector is the part of a country’s economy that is concerned with external trade (imports and exports) and capital flows (inward and outward).
Q19. In migration the factors which cause people to leave their place of residence or origin are called __.
(A) Push factors
(B) Regular factors
(C) Pull factors
(D) Irregular factors
Answer: (A) Push factors
Explanation: Push factors. These are the factors that drive people away from their place of origin, such as war, political instability, or economic hardship. Pull factors are the factors that attract people to a new place, such as better economic opportunities, better education, or a more favourable climate.
Q20. What is the fiscal year period in India?
(A) 1st April of a year to 31st March of the next upcoming year
(B) 1st April to 31st December of the same year
(C) 1st January to 31st December of the same year
(D) 1st January of a year to 31st December of the next upcoming year
Answer: (A) 1st April of a year to 31st March of the next upcoming year
Explanation: Financial Year. Assessment year – The year in which the income is assessed to tax and all taxes are paid and tax returns filed.
Q21. Change in the inventory of a firm is treated as _.
(A) Disinvestment
(B) Liability
(C) Investment
(D) Asset
Answer: (C) Investment
Explanation: Investment – It refers to the allocation of money or resources with the expectation of generating a return or profit over time. Disinvestment is when governments or organisations sell or liquidate assets or subsidiaries.
Q22. Which of the following is an example of joint sector Industry?
(A) Steel Authority of India Limited
(B) Maruti Udyog Limited
(C) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(D) Anand Milk Union Limited
Answer: (B) Maruti Udyog Limited
Explanation: Maruti Udyog Limited. The Joint Sector Enterprise is an industry wherein private entrepreneurs and a Government jointly participate in ownership, control, and management. Economic activities, such as the production and distribution of goods and services, take place broadly in 4 sectors, namely public sector, private sector, joint sector, and cooperative sector. Examples of some joint sector industries – Oil India Limited, Cochin Refineries, Tamil Nadu Fluorine & Allied Chemicals Limited.
Q23. Which among the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Industrial Securities Market is also known as the gilt-edged market.
(B) The secondary market is the market for the sale and purchase of previously issued securities.
(C) RBI plays a dominant role in the gilt-edged market through its ‘Open Market Operations’.
(D) The primary market is also known as the new issue market
Answer: (A) Industrial Securities Market is also known as the gilt-edged market.
Explanation: Gilt-edged market is known as the government securities market. The Industrial Securities Market is divided into two categories – Primary Market ( New company shares issued (IPO) and Secondary Market (Stock Exchange). The secondary market is the market for the sale and purchase of previously issued securities.
Q24. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the socialist society in the economy?
I. The government decides what goods are to be produced.
II. Distribution of goods under socialism is supposed to be based on what people need.
(A) Only I
(B) Neither I nor II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Only II
Answer: (C) Both I and II
Explanation: Both I and II. Socialist Economy decides on the products and services manufactured in line with society’s requirements. It also have complete control over the factors of production. The main motive for producing goods and services in this economy is social welfare and not profit. Example – China and Cuba. In India -Mix Economy.
Q25. Macroeconomics deals with which of the following studies?
I. Reasons behind the unemployment of resources
Il. Determination of total output
(A) Only l
(B) Only ll
(C) Neither I nor II
(D) Both l and Il
Answer: (D) Both l and Il
Explanation: Both I and II. Macroeconomics looks at the economy as a whole and studies aggregate phenomena such as overall economic output (eg. GDP), unemployment rates, inflation, and national income.
Q26. A free – market economy is a crucial aspect of _ .
(A) Socialism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Feudalism
(D) Functionalist
Answer: (B) Capitalism
Explanation: Capitalism refers to an economic system where private businesses can have ownership of capital goods. Functionalism is defined as the perspective that society is constructed of several interconnected parts designed to meet biological and social needs. Feudalism is a type of social and political system in which landholders provide land and protection to people in exchange for their loyalty and service.
Q27. Which of the given sectors is largely driven by considerations of social welfare?
(A) Foreign
(B) Co-operative
(C) Public
(D) Private
Answer: (C) Public
Explanation: Public sector (completely owned and operated by the government of the country) promotes social welfare by providing basic amenities to citizens of the country.
Q28. Name the two states in which land reform was successful ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(B) West Bengal and Kerala
(C) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka and West Bengal
Answer: (B) West Bengal and Kerala
Explanation: West Bengal and Kerala. The Kumarappan committee (1949) was appointed to study and recommend comprehensive land reform measures for independent India. Land Reforms consisted of four elements: The Abolition of the Intermediaries, Tenancy Reforms, Fixing Ceilings on Landholdings and Consolidation of Landholdings.
Q29. Aid or auxiliary to trade includes which of the following?
(A) Production
(B) Selling
(C) Buying
(D) Warehousing
Answer: (D) Warehousing
Explanation: Warehousing. Auxiliaries to trade are essential services and functions that assist the business which include transport, banking, warehousing, insurance, advertising etc. Five distinct examples of economic activities are producing, supplying, buying, selling, and the consumption of goods and services.
Q30. In the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948, which of the following was NOT the monopoly of the Central Government?
(A) Iron and Steel
(B) Atomic energy
(C) Railway
(D) Arms and ammunition
Answer: (A) Iron and Steel
Explanation: Iron and Steel. Industrial Policy Resolution (1948) declared the Indian economy as a Mixed Economy. Four categories: The exclusive monopoly of central government (arms and ammunitions, production of atomic energy, and management of railways), New undertakings were undertaken only by the state (coal, iron and steel, aircraft manufacturing, shipbuilding, telegraph, telephone, etc.), Industries to be regulated by the government (Industries of basic importance), Open to private enterprises, individuals, and cooperatives (remaining).
Q31. What is the emigration of a significant proportion of a country’s highly skilled, highly educated professional population to other countries offering better economic and social opportunities called ?
(A) Carrying capacity
(B) Brain drain
(C) Demographic transition
(D) Closed population
Answer: (B) Brain drain
Explanation: Brain Drain is the movement of highly skilled and educated people to a country where they can work in better conditions and earn more money. Economic carrying capacity takes the form of maximum global economic welfare derivable from the sustainable throughput flows of the ecosphere. Demographic transition is a long-term trend of declining birth and death rates, resulting in substantive change in the age distribution of a population.
Q32. In the context of Economics, what does P stand for in EPF?
(A) Provident
(B) Profit
(C) Promotion
(D) Planning
Answer: (A) Provident
Explanation: Employees Provident Fund (EPF) is a retirement benefits scheme provided by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO). The contribution of the employer to the EPF is 12% of the salary of the employee on a monthly basis. The contribution of the employee is 12% of his salary on a monthly basis (contribution to EPF is 3.67% of the salary and contribution to EPS is 8.33% of the salary).
Q33. Which of the following is NOT important for individual health?
(A) Social equality
(B) Public cleanliness
(C) Harmony
(D) Public transport
Answer: (D) Public transport
Explanation: Public transport is not important for individual health. Living a healthy lifestyle can help prevent chronic diseases and long-term illnesses.
Q34. Which of the following statements is related to positive economics ?
(A) Inflation is better than deflation.
(B) Inequalities in the distribution of wealth and incomes should be reduced.
(C) More production of luxury goods is not good for a less developed country.
(D) An increase in money supply implies a price rise in an economy.
Answer: (D) An increase in money supply implies a price rise in an economy.
Explanation: Positive economics is objective and based on statistics, with descriptive, specific, and measurable statements. There are no instances of approval-disapproval in it. Examples – the inflation rate, the unemployment rate, housing market statistics, and consumer spending.
Q35. Which branch of economics deals with the depletion of natural resources stock and pollution, which are a result of rapid economic development ?
(A) Environmental Economics
(B) Developmental Economics
(C) International Economics
(D) Public Economics
Answer: (A) Environmental Economics
Explanation: Environmental Economics. Development economics deals with the economic aspects of the development process in low-income countries. Public economics is the study of government policy through the lens of economic efficiency and equity.
Q36. All monetary transfers or kinds sent by migrants to their place of origin are called __.
(A) bills
(B) drafts
(C) remittances
(D) payments
Answer: (C) remittances
Explanation: Remittances. In remittance, money can be transferred from one country to another country by migrants to their families and communities.
Q37. People like small farmers and seasonal workers who regularly move in and out of poverty are categorised as __.
(A) occasionally poor
(B) churning poor
(C) always poor
(D) usually poor
Answer: (B) churning poor
Explanation: Churning poor are those people who regularly move in or out of poverty. When they get employed or their harvest is good they are above the poverty line but when they are unemployed or in bad climatic years they are below the poverty line. Example seasonal workers or small farmers .
Q38. An unexpected rise in sales of a product leads to __.
(A) Planned accumulation of inventory
(B) Planned decumulation of inventory
(C) Unplanned decumulation of inventory
(D) Unplanned accumulation of inventory
Answer: (C) Unplanned decumulation of inventory
Explanation: Unplanned decumulation of inventory refers to the unexpected decrease in the stock of goods due to the rise in sales. Unplanned accumulation of inventory refers to the unexpected increase in the stock of goods due to the fall in sales. Inventory is the stock of unsold finished goods, or semi-finished goods, or raw materials which a firm carries from one year to the next.
Q39. An industrial economy is best defined as an economy whose 50% or more produce value comes from the _ sector.
(A) banking
(B) secondary
(C) tertiary
(D) primary
Answer: (B) secondary
Explanation: Secondary.
Q40. ‘Income and employment theory’ is the other name for which branch of Economics?
(A) Macroeconomics
(B) Public finance
(C) Microeconomics
(D) International economics
Answer: (A) Macroeconomics
Explanation: Macroeconomics is the branch of economics that studies the behaviour and performance of an economy as a whole. It focuses on the aggregate changes in the economy such as unemployment, growth rate, gross domestic product, and inflation.
Q41. __ is defined as the study of behaviour of individual decision-making units, such as consumers, resource owners and firms.
(A) Macroeconomics
(B) Microeconomics
(C) Health economics
(D) Econometrics
Answer: (B) Microeconomics
Explanation: Microeconomics is a branch of economics that studies the behaviour of individuals and firms in making decisions regarding the allocation of scarce resources and the interactions among these individuals and firms. The concepts of wages, rent, interest and profit are studied under Microeconomics.
Q42. John Maynard Keynes, best known for his economic theories (Keynesian theories), hailed from which country?
(A) Sweden
(B) Denmark
(C) Australia
(D) England
Answer: (D) England
Explanation: England. John Maynard Keynes (Father of Macroeconomics) Studied how economies, markets and other systems that operate on a large scale behave. Keynesian economics argues that demand drives supply and that healthy economies spend or invest more than they save.
Q43. Which of these statements is true?
(A) Under competitive asset market conditions, the price of a bond must always be equal to its present value in equilibrium.
(B) Under competitive asset market conditions, the price of a bond must be less than its present value to benefit the seller
(C) Under competitive asset market conditions, the price of a bond must exceed its present value to benefit the buyer.
(D) Under competitive asset market conditions, the present value must exceed the price of a bond to benefit the seller.
Answer: (A) Under competitive asset market conditions, the price of a bond must always be equal to its present value in equilibrium.
Explanation: Market prices are influenced by demand and supply interactions, with equilibrium price balancing factors. Changes occur when demand or supply shifts. The five factors that affect the market equilibrium are excess demand, excess supply, changes in demand and supply, competitive factors, and strategic factors.
Q44. If the interest rate goes up, the demand for money will _.
(A) First rise and then falls
(B) rise
(C) remain the same
(D) fall
Answer: (D) fall
Explanation: Fall. Inflation and Interest rate, both have an inverse relationship. Increased interest rates: It will slow down economic growth, reduce disposable income, bring appreciation to exchange rate, lead to more savings, give rise to unemployment. Decreased interest rates: It will boost economic growth, bring depreciation to the exchange rate, cost of borrowing will become cheaper, promote more spending and the situation of unemployment decreases.
Q45. According to the law of demand the consumer’s demand for a good must be __.
(A) directly related to the supply of the good
(B) inversely related to the price of the good
(C) directly related to the price of the good
(D) inversely related to the supply of the good
Answer: (B) inversely related to the price of the good
Explanation: Inversely related to the price of the good. The law of demand and supply given by Adam smith. Law of demand: An economic principle explaining the negative correlation between the price of a good or service and its demand. If all other factors remain the same, when the price of a good or service increases, the quantity of demand decreases, and vice versa.
Q46. If ex ante aggregate demand and ex ante aggregate supply are plotted together in a graphical diagram, then at which point equilibrium will be reached?
(A) Where ex ante aggregate demand is equal to ex ante aggregate supply
(B) Where ex ante aggregate demand is zero
(C) Where ex ante aggregate demand is less than ex ante aggregate supply
(D) Where ex ante aggregate demand is more than ex ante aggregate supply
Answer: (A) Where ex ante aggregate demand is equal to ex ante aggregate supply
Explanation: The aggregate demand /aggregate supply model is a model that shows what determines total supply or total demand for the economy and how total demand and total supply interact at the macroeconomic level. Aggregate supply is the total quantity of output firms will produce and sell-in other words, the real GDP. Aggregate demand is the amount of total spending on domestic goods and services in an economy. Equilibrium point is E and equilibrium level of income is OY1
Q47. If the price elasticity of demand is ess than one, then the demand for the goods is said to be __.
(A) Perfectly inelastic
(B) Inelastic
(C) Perfectly elastic
(D) Unitary-elastic
Answer: (B) Inelastic
Explanation: Inelastic. Price Elasticity of Demand is a measurement of the change in the consumption of a product in relation to a change in its price. If price elasticity is greater than 1 then the good is elastic, if less than 1 then it is inelastic, if the price elasticity is infinite then a good is perfectly elastic, and If the good’s price elasticity is 0 then it is perfectly inelastic.
Q48. The simultaneous shifts of both the demand curve and the supply curve can happen in which of the following ways?
I. Supply curve shifts leftward and demand curve shifts rightward.
II. Both supply and demand curves shift leftwards.
III. Supply curve shifts rightward and demand curve shifts leftward.
(A) I, II and III
(B) Only I
(C) I and II
(D) II and III
Answer: (A) I, II and III
Explanation: I, II and III. When both curves shift rightward, the equilibrium quantity increases, but the equilibrium price may increase, decrease or remain unchanged. When Both curves shift towards the left, the equilibrium quantity decreases but the equilibrium price may increase, decrease or remain the same. When demand curve shifts right and supply curve to the left, the equilibrium price increases but the equilibrium quantity may increase, decrease or remain the same. All depending on the magnitude of shift in the two curves.
Q49. Which of the following assumptions is made to determine the level of aggregate demand for final goods in the economy?
I. A constant final goods price and constant rate of interest over short run are assumed.
II. The aggregate supply is assumed to be perfectly elastic.
(A) Only II
(B) Only I
(C) Neither I nor II
(D) Both I and II
Answer: (D) Both I and II
Explanation: Both I and II. Effective demand principle : Under such circumstances, aggregate output is determined solely by the level of aggregate demand. An increase (decrease) in autonomous spending causes aggregate output of final goods to increase (decrease) by a larger amount through the multiplier process.
Q50. _ demand for money arises mainly due to the uncertainty of future receipts and expenses.
(A) Precautionary
(B) Generic
(C) Speculative
(D) Transactions
Answer: (A) Precautionary
Explanation: Precautionary . The amount of money required for current transactions of companies and individuals is known as transaction demand for money. Speculative demand arises from the perception that money is optimally part of a portfolio of assets being held as investments.