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Q1. Identify whether the given statements about ionisation energy are correct or incorrect.

Statement A: The ionisation energy of an atom is the amount of energy that is required to remove an electron from a mole of atoms in the gas phase.

Statement B: The ionisation energy increases from top to bottom in groups and decreases from left to right across a period.

(A) Only Statement B is correct
(B) Only Statement A is correct
(C) Both Statements A and B are correct
(D) Both Statements A and B are incorrect

Answer: (B) Only Statement A is correct

Explanation: Only Statement A is correct. The ionization energy decreases from top to bottom in groups, and increases from left to right across a period. Thus, helium has the largest ionization energy, while Caesium has the lowest.

Q2. In which year did Carl Anderson discover a positively charged particle called “positron’ whose mass appears to be equal to the mass of an electron?

(A) 1932
(B) 1912
(C) 1922
(D) 1942

Answer: (A) 1932

Explanation: 1932. Electron – J.J. Thomson (1897). Proton – E. Rutherford. Neutron – James Chadwick (1932).

Q3. In which year did Niels Bohr propose a theory for the hydrogen atom based on the quantum theory that some physical quantities take only discrete values?

(A) 1919
(B) 1921
(C) 1909
(D) 1913

Answer: (D) 1913

Explanation: 1913. Niels Bohr received the Nobel Prize in 1922 “for his services in the investigation of the structure of atoms and of the radiation emanating from them”.

Q4. Which are the four quantum numbers for an electron present in 4f orbital?

(A) n = 4, 𝑙 = 3, m = +1, s = + 1/2
(B) n = 3, 𝑙 = 2, m = – 2, s = + 1/2
(C) n = 4, 𝑙 = 4, m = – 4, s = – 1/2
(D) n = 4, 𝑙 = 3, m = +4, s = + 1/2

Answer: (A) n = 4, 𝑙 = 3, m = +1, s = + 1/2

Explanation: There are four quantum numbers: Principal (n) – It refers to the electron shell with the most electrons, giving the electron’s likely distance from the nucleus. Azimuthal (l) – It is defined as the determination of the shape of an orbital. Magnetic (m) – The subshell’s overall number of orbitals and their orientation. Spin (s) – The values of n, l, and ml have no bearing on the electron. The 4s subshell contains 1 orbital and can hold up to 2 electrons. The 4p subshell contains 3 orbitals and can hold up to 6 electrons. The 4d subshell contains 5 orbitals and can hold up to 10 electrons.The 4f subshell has 7 orbitals and can hold up to 14 electrons.

Q5. The correct electronic configuration of Cu is :

(A) [Ar]3d94s2
(B) [Kr]3d94s2
(C) [Kr]3d104s1
(D) [Ar]3d104s1

Answer: (D) [Ar]3d104s1

Explanation: [Ar]3d104s1 . Copper (Cu) – Atomic number (29), Electronic configuration – 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d10 or [Ar]3d104s1 .

Q6. What does it mean when an object has a positive charge ?

(A) It has more electrons than protons
(B) It has more protons than electrons
(C) It has more neutrons than electrons
(D) It has more neutrons than protons

Answer: (B) It has more protons than electrons

Explanation: An electron is negatively charged particle and protons are positively charged particles.

Q7. What is the relative charge of a proton and neutron?

(A) -1 and +1 respectively
(B) +1 and -1 respectively
(C) +1 and 0 respectively
(D) -1 and 0 respectively

Answer: (C) +1 and 0 respectively

Explanation: +1 and 0 respectively.

Q8. Which of the following pairs of ‘number – composition’ is correct?

I. Atomic number – number of protons

II. Mass number – Sum of number of neutrons and protons

(A) Only I
(B) Neither I nor II
(C) Only II
(D) Both I and II

Answer: (D) Both I and II

Explanation: As atomic number increases, subsequently mass number also increases.

Q9. What is the atomic mass of sodium?

(A) 32
(B) 40
(C) 23
(D) 12

Answer: (C) 23

Explanation: Sodium (Na) is an alkali metal. Atomic number – 11, Group – 1 and Period – 3, Sodium is a solid at room temperature. Uses – Soaps, the purification of molten metals and sodium vapour lamps.

Q10. Which of the following is the correct representation of number of atoms?

(A) (𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 / 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 ) × 𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒r
(B) (𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒r / 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠) × 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
(C) (𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠s / 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠) × 𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒r
(D) (𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 / 𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒r) × 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠

Answer: (A) (𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 / 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 ) × 𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒r

Explanation: Avogadro number: 6.022 × 10²³. Molar mass of a substance is the mass (in grams) of one mole of the compound.

Q11. What is the maximum number of electrons that the third orbit or M-shell can have?

(A) 32
(B) 8
(C) 18
(D) 2

Answer: (C) 18

Explanation: The maximum number of electrons accommodated in a shell based on principal quantum number (n). It is represented by the formula 2n2 . K shell, n = 1, Max Electron = 2 × 1 2 = 2. L shell, n = 2, Max Electron = 2 × 2 2 = 8. M shell, n = 3, Max Electron = 2 × 3 2 = 18. N shell, n = 4, Max Electron = 2 × 42 = 32.

Q12. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding Rutherford’s nuclear model of an atom?

(A) The size of the nucleus is very large as compared to the size of the atom.
(B) The electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths.
(C) There is a positively charged centre in an atom called the nucleus.
(D) Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.

Answer: (A) The size of the nucleus is very large as compared to the size of the atom.

Explanation: According to Rutherford’s nuclear model of an atom, nucleus is very small in size as compared to the size of the atom. Rutherford explained the revolving of electrons around the nucleus, however, he did not mention how the electrons were placed inside, which ended up making Rutherford’s model an incomplete model of the atom.

Q13. Which of the following pairs of ‘elements – valency’ is correct?

I. Boron – 2

II. Fluorine – 3

(A) Neither I nor II
(B) Both I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only I

Answer: (A) Neither I nor II

Explanation: Neither I nor II. Valency – Combining power of an element. Valency of some elements : Aluminium (+3), Boron (+3), fluorine (-1).

Q14. Which theory discusses the relationship between ligand bonding and degradation of d orbitals in metal complexes and the geometry of metal complexes and the splitting of d orbitals?

(A) Ligand field theory (LFT)
(B) Crystal field theory (CFT)
(C) Valence bond theory (VBT)
(D) Molecular orbital theory (MOT)

Answer: (B) Crystal field theory (CFT)

Explanation: Crystal field theory: (1929, developed by physicist Hans Bethe) describes the breaking of orbital degeneracy in transition metal complexes due to the presence of ligands.

Q15. What kind of forces arise from transient dipoles in atoms that induce transient dipoles in nearby atoms, produce an attractive force and are significant only over short distances (~500 pm) ?

(A) London dispersion forces
(B) Dipole-dipole forces
(C) Dipole-induced dipole forces
(D) Hydrogen bond

Answer: (A) London dispersion forces

Explanation: London Dispersion forces. Dipole – Dipole Force is a form of intermolecular force that occurs when a polar molecule interacts with a non-polar molecule. Dipole-induced dipole force is a type of attractive force that operates between the polar molecules having permanent dipole and the molecules lacking permanent dipole.

Q16. In 1898, whose theory propounded that the ions/groups bonded to the metal by secondary bonding have spatial arrangements corresponding to different characteristics coordination number?

(A) Henry Taube
(B) Alfred Werner
(C) Erich Huckel
(D) Emil Fischer

Answer: (B) Alfred Werner

Explanation: Nobel Prize for Chemistry (1913). Henry Taube – Nobel Prize in Chemistry (1983 – “for his studies of the mechanisms of electron transfer in metal complexes”).

Q17. What is the atomicity of Phosphorus?

(A) Poly-atomic
(B) Monoatomic
(C) Diatomic
(D) Tetra-atomic

Answer: (D) Tetra-atomic

Explanation: Tetra-atomic. Atomicity is the total number of atoms present in a molecule. Polyatomic (composed of three or more atoms). Phosphorus was first made by Hennig Brandt in 1669.

Q18. Which formula is used to represent the three-dimensional structures of molecules using a two-dimensional surface like a sheet of paper or a computer screen?

(A) Bond-line formula
(B) Lewis structure formula
(C) Dash-wedge formula
(D) Condensed structural formula

Answer: (C) Dash-wedge formula

Explanation: Dash-wedge formula. Bond – line formula is used for every bond represented as a line in a zigzag manner.

Q19. In the electronic configuration of an atom, What does ‘n’ signify in the formula 2n2 ?

(A) The number of the given shell from the nucleus
(B) The number of protons
(C) The number of electrons
(D) The number of valence electrons present

Answer: (A) The number of the given shell from the nucleus

Explanation: The electronic configuration of an element describes how electrons are distributed in its atomic orbitals. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a shell is based on the principal quantum number (n) and is represented by the formula 2n2 , where ‘n’ is the shell number.

Q20. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, atoms combine in the ratio of small whole numbers to form __.

(A) neutrons
(B) molecules
(C) protons
(D) compounds

Answer: (D) compounds

Explanation: Compounds. John Dalton is considered the ‘Father of Modern Atomic Theory’. Dalton’s atomic theory (1808) was the first complete attempt to describe all matter in terms of atoms and their properties.

Q21. If the size of the nucleus of an atom is compared with a cricket ball, then the radius of the atom is approximately equal to how many kilometers?

(A) 5
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.005

Answer: (A) 5

Explanation: 5 km. The radius of the atom is 10-10 m, and the radius of nucleus is 10-15 m.

Q22. The first electron shell which is the nearest to the nucleus never holds more than ‘n’ electrons, where ‘n’ is equal to:

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 2
(D) 6

Answer: (C) 2

Explanation: The maximum number of electrons accommodated in a shell based on principal quantum number (n). It is represented by the formula 2n2 . K shell, n = 1, Max Electron = 2 × 1 2 = 2. L shell, n = 2, Max Electron = 2 × 2 2 = 8. M shell, n = 3, Max Electron = 2 × 3 2 = 18. N shell, n = 4, Max Electron = 2 × 42 = 32.

Q23. Which of the following is NOT an alkaline earth metal ?

(A) Na
(B) Mg
(C) Ca
(D) Be

Answer: (A) Na

Explanation: Na (Sodium) – It is an Alkali metal. Alkaline earth metals: Beryllium (Be, 4), Magnesium (Mg, 12), Calcium (Ca, 20), Strontium (Sr, 38), Barium (Ba, 56), Radium (Ra, 88). They have two electrons in their outermost shells. Alkali metals: Lithium (Li, 3), Sodium (Na, 11), Potassium (K, 19), Rubidium (Rb, 37), Caesium (Cs, 55), Francium (Fr, 87).

Q24. What is the name of the seventh most abundant metal in the earth’s crust, which is derived from the medieval Latin word ‘Kalium’ ?

(A) Aluminium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Calcium
(D) Potassium

Answer: (D) Potassium

Explanation: Potassium. It makes up 2.4% by mass of the Earth crust. Aluminium is the most abundant metal and Oxygen is the most abundant non-metal found in the earth’s crust. Eight most abundant elements in the Earth’s crust are Oxygen (O), Silicon (Si), Aluminium (Al), Calcium (Ca), Iron (Fe), Magnesium (Mg), Sodium (Na), and Potassium (K).

Q25. Which chemical element with atomic number 35 has a dark reddish-brown liquid with a burning pungent odour ?

(A) Bromine
(B) Chlorine
(C) Astatine
(D) Tennessine

Answer: (A) Bromine

Explanation: Bromine (Br) is the third halogen, a nonmetal in group 17 of the periodic table. Products containing bromine used in agriculture and sanitation and as fire retardants.

Q26. An image of which of the following elements is shown by the map of Cyprus from which the element got its name ?

(A) Silver
(B) Cobalt
(C) Copper
(D) Sulphur

Answer: (C) Copper

Explanation: Copper (Cu, Atomic no 29). It is a good conductor of heat and electricity. It is in group 11, period 4 and block ‘d’ of the periodic table. It was the first metal used by man on earth.

Q27. Which radioactive isotope has a half-life of 5770 years, which is commonly used to estimate the age of organic materials such as paper and parchment ?

(A) 9C
(B) 12C
(C) 14C
(D) 17C

Answer: (C) 14C

Explanation: 14C – It is an unstable and weakly radioactive isotope of carbon. Three Natural isotopes of carbon : 12C, 13C and 14C. Isotopes – Atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers. For example, take the case of hydrogen atom, it has three atomic species, namely protium ( 1 1H), deuterium ( 2 1H or D) and tritium ( 3 1H or T). The atomic number of each one is 1, but the mass number is 1, 2 and 3, respectively.

Q28. Which metal ion released from the tannery industry causes acute water pollution?

(A) Mg
(B) As
(C) Cr
(D) Zn

Answer: (C) Cr

Explanation: Chromium (Cr). Tannery Wastewaters: It contains Hairs, proteins, acids, alkalis, chromium salts, sulphides, chlorides, tannins, solvents, dyes.

Q29. What is the most stable mineral during the process of weathering?

(A) Quartz
(B) Olivine
(C) Pyroxene
(D) Amphibole

Answer: (A) Quartz

Explanation: Quartz (felsic mineral). Iron oxides, Al-hydroxides, clay minerals and quartz are the most stable weathered products whereas highly soluble minerals like halite are the least stable. Silicates fall within the middle range. Mafic silicates like olivine, pyroxene or amphibole breakdown relatively easily. Weathering – The breaking down or dissolving of rocks and minerals on Earth’s surface. Types of weathering: Chemical, Physical and Biological Weathering.

Q30. From which Latin word is the s block element calcium derived?

(A) Calx
(B) Calum
(C) Coleus
(D) Calcio

Answer: (A) Calx

Explanation: Calx (calcium hydroxide). Formula – Ca(OH)2 . It is used in industrial settings, such as sewage treatment, paper production, construction, and food processing. Calum (calcium carbonate): Formula – CaCO3 .

Q31. Which element of Group 17 has two isotopes of masses 35 and 37 amu with average abundance of 75.77% and 24.23%, respectively?

(A) lodine
(B) Chlorine
(C) Fluorine
(D) Astatine

Answer: (B) Chlorine

Explanation: Element of Group 17 : The halogens are located on the left of the noble gases on the periodic table. These five toxic, non-metallic elements make up Group 17 of the periodic table and consist of : fluorine (9, F), chlorine (17, Cl), bromine (35, Br), iodine (53, I), and astatine (85, At).

Q32. Which of the following are metalloids?

(A) Boron, oxygen, aluminium
(B) Boron, mercury, iron
(C) Boron, silicon, antimony
(D) Aluminium, mercury, copper

Answer: (C) Boron, silicon, antimony

Explanation: Boron, silicon, antimony. Metalloids – Chemical elements whose physical and chemical properties fall in between the metal and non-metal categories. Seven most widely recognized metalloids – Boron, germanium, silicon, antimony, arsenic, tellurium and polonium.

Q33. Which among the following alloys is a combination of gold and silver?

(A) Bronze
(B) Constantan
(C) Solder
(D) Electrum

Answer: (D) Electrum

Explanation: Electrum. Some other alloys: Steel (Carbon and Iron). Stainless steel – (Iron with Chromium and Nickel). German silver – (copper, zinc and nickel). Rose Metal – (Bismuth , Lead and Tin). Gun Metal – (Cu + Sn + Zn + Pb). Dutch metal- (Cu and Zn). Constantan (Eureka) – Alloy of 55% Copper and 45% Nickel. Solder – It is made up of Tin and Lead.

Q34. Which of the following is a non – metal that can exist in different form?

(A) Mercury
(B) Carbon
(C) Lithium
(D) Potassium

Answer: (B) Carbon

Explanation: Carbon (C) . Atomic number – 6. Belongs to the 14th group. It is a tetravalent which makes a chemical bond with four electrons. Each form of carbon is called an allotrope. Diamond (an allotrope of carbon) is the hardest natural substance known and has a very high melting and boiling point. Graphite, another allotrope of carbon, is a conductor of electricity.

Q35. What is the characteristic of isotopes ?

(A) Same atomic number and different mass number
(B) Same neutron and same proton
(C) Same atomic number and same mass number
(D) Same neutron and different proton

Answer: (B) Same neutron and same proton

Explanation: An example of a group of isotopes is hydrogen-1 (protium), hydrogen-2 (deuterium), and hydrogen-3 (tritium). Isodiaphers – They are atoms of different elements that have the same difference between the number of protons and the number of neutrons. Example: Carbon-12 and Nitrogen-14.

Q36. Which of the following metals is always a component in an amalgam?

(A) Strontium
(B) Mercury
(C) Zinc
(D) Aluminium

Answer: (B) Mercury

Explanation: Mercury. Amalgam is an alloy of mercury with one or more metals. The most common amalgam is dental amalgam, which is used to fill cavities in teeth. Dental amalgam is a mixture of mercury, silver, tin, and copper.

Q37. Oxides of _ and _ dissolve in rain water and form acids which are called acid rain.

(A) sulphur, nitrogen
(B) phosphorous, sulphur
(C) carbon dioxide, methane
(D) calcium, magnesium

Answer: (A) sulphur, nitrogen

Explanation: Sulphur, nitrogen. Acid Rain – When the pH of the rain water drops below 5.6, it is called acid rain. Acid rain damages buildings and other structures made of stone or metal. The main reason for this is air pollution caused by the burning of fossil fuels. The Taj Mahal has been affected by acid rain.

Q38. Which among the following alloys is made up of copper and zinc?

(A) Monel Metal
(B) Magnalium
(C) Rolled Gold
(D) Dutch Metal

Answer: (D) Dutch Metal

Explanation: Dutch Metal. Monel metal: Group of alloys of Copper and Nickel. Uses: marine engineering, chemical and hydrocarbon processing equipment, valves, pumps, shafts, fittings, fasteners, and heat exchangers, Magnalium: Mixture of magnesium and aluminium, used in making aircrafts and automobile parts, Rolled gold: An alloy of Copper and Aluminium, used for making cheap ornaments.

Q39. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Metals react with acids and produce metal salts and hydrogen gas.
(B) Non – metals react with oxygen to produce non – metallic oxides which are basic in nature.
(C) On burning, metals react with oxygen to produce metal oxides which are acidic in nature.
(D) Less reactive metals displace more reactive metals from their compounds in aqueous solutions.

Answer: (A) Metals react with acids and produce metal salts and hydrogen gas.

Explanation: Example – Fe (Iron) + H2SO4 (sulfuric acid) → FeSO4 (ferrous sulfate) + H2 (hydrogen). Non – metals react with oxygen – produce nonmetallic oxides (Acidic), Example – S (Sulphur) + O2 (Oxygen) → SO2 (Sulphur Dioxide). Metals react with oxygen – Produce metallic oxides (Basic), Example – Mg (Magnesium) + O2 (Oxygen) → MgO (Magnesium Oxide).

Q40. Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct ?

I. The property of metals by which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called malleability.

II. The property of metal by which it can being drawn into wires is called ductility.

(A) Neither I nor II
(B) Both I and II
(C) Only I
(D) Only II

Answer: (A) Neither I nor II

Explanation: Neither I nor II. Malleability – The property of metals to be beaten into thin sheets. Examples – Copper, silver. Ductility – The property of metal to be drawn into wires. Examples – Gold, silver and copper. Density and melting point of metals is high.

Q41. Which of the following liquids can dissolve noble metals such as gold and platinum?

(A) Formic acid
(B) Aqua regia
(C) Acetic acid
(D) Chloroform

Answer: (B) Aqua regia

Explanation: Aqua regia is a mixture of hydrochloric acid and nitric acid present in the ratio 3:1. Formic acid (methanoic acid, chemical formula – HCOOH ) is the simplest carboxylic acid ,used as a preservative and antibacterial agent.

Q42. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the alkali metals?

(A) All the alkali metals are silvery white, soft and light metals.
(B) The ionization enthalpies of the alkali metals are considerably low and decrease down the group from.
(C) Group 1 metals are known as alkali metals.
(D) All the alkali metals have two valence electrons.

Answer: (D) All the alkali metals have two valence electrons.

Explanation: Alkali metals have one electron in their valence shell. Group 1A of the periodic table are the alkali metals: Hydrogen (H, 1), Lithium (Li, 3), Sodium (Na, 11), Potassium (K , 19), Rubidium (Rb, 37), Cesium (Cs, 55), and Francium (Fr , 87).

Q43. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

(A) Metals are used in making cookware.
(B) Metals are used in the manufacture of automobiles.
(C) Living beings inhale metals during respiration.
(D) Metals are used in manufacturing jewellery.

Answer: (C) Living beings inhale metals during respiration.

Explanation: Living beings do not inhale metals during respiration. Humans get the oxygen they need by breathing through their nose and mouth into their lungs. Normal respiration rates for an adult person at rest range from 12 to 16 breaths per minute.

Q44. Choose the most reactive metal from the options given below.

(A) Copper
(B) Sodium
(C) Zinc
(D) Iron

Answer: (B) Sodium

Explanation: odium. Reactive metals in order: Potassium (Most reactive metal), Sodium, Barium, Calcium, Magnesium, Aluminium, Zinc, Iron, Nickel, Tin, Lead, Hydrogen, Copper, Mercury, Silver, Gold, Platinum (Least Reactive).

Q45. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(A) Metals react with oxygen to form basic oxides.
(B) Non-metals do not produce any sound
(C) Non-metals are malleable
(D) Metals have low ionisation enthalpy

Answer: (C) Non-metals are malleable

Explanation: Physical Properties of Non metals: Poor conductors of electricity and heat, Non-malleable nor ductile, Brittle solids, May be solids, liquids, or gases at room temperature, These are not sonorous, and Transparent.

Q46. Which of the following metals reacts violently with cold water?

(A) Magnesium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Zinc
(D) Potassium

Answer: (D) Potassium

Explanation: Potassium and sodium react violently with cold water, where sodium reacts slightly stronger than Potassium. The reaction is exothermic in nature and in each reaction, hydrogen gas is given off and the metal hydroxide is produced.

Q47. Which of the following metals having atomic number 3 is a soft, silvery metal with very low density that reacts vigorously with water and corrodes quickly in air?

(A) Potassium
(B) Sodium
(C) Lithium
(D) Rubidium

Answer: (C) Lithium

Explanation: Lithium. It has the lowest density of all metals. Lithium is the first of the alkalis metals in the periodic table. It is highly reactive and does not occur freely in nature. Lithium is the only alkali metal that reacts with nitrogen.

Q48. Identify the INCORRECT pair with respect to the substances and their specific heat capacity (J𝑘𝑔 -1 k -1 ) at room temperature and atmospheric pressure.

(A) Aluminium – 900.0
(B) Water – 1200
(C) Carbon – 506.5
(D) Tungsten – 134.4

Answer: (B) Water – 1200

Explanation: Water has a specific heat capacity of 4186 Jkg-1K -1 . Specific heat of some substance- Iron/Steel- 450, Copper- 390, Silver- 230, Mercury- 140, Platinum- 130, Hydrogen- 14000, Air- 718, Ice- 2100, Sea Water- 3900 etc.

Q49. The particles of which metal on heating to the boiling point of 357°C go from liquid state to gas state?

(A) Mercury
(B) Copper
(C) Bronze
(D) Gallium

Answer: (A) Mercury

Explanation: (Hg, Atomic Number-80) is also a good conductor of electricity, so it is a useful component of electrical switches. Mercury is also used in dental fillings, paints, soaps, batteries, and fluorescent lighting. It is commonly known as quicksilver and was formerly named hydrargyrum.

Q50. The name of which element is derived from an Anglo-Saxon word and its symbol comes from the Latin word ‘Aurum’?

(A) Argon
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminium
(D) Silver

Answer: (B) Gold

Explanation: The atomic number of gold is 79 and its symbol is Au, which is derived from the Anglo Saxon word. The top producers of Gold in the world are China, Australia, Russia, and the United States.

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