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Q1. Which of the following grains contain oryzenin?

(A) Barley
(B) Wheat
(C) Soyabean
(D) Rice

Answer: (D) Rice

Explanation: Rice – A source of protein and contains various vitamins, such as thiamin and niacin, and minerals, such as zinc and phosphorus. Oryzenin – A rice glutelin, is an important constituent of rice protein. Glutelin comprises the major protein fraction of the rice grain and constitutes up to 80% of the total protein. Wheat contains protein, B vitamins, dietary fiber, and phytochemicals. Soyabean is high in protein and contains vitamin K1, folate, copper, manganese, phosphorus, and thiamine.

Q2. What happens to the guard cells when water flows into them?

(A) The guard cells close
(B) Stomatal pores open
(C) Stomatal pores shrink
(D) Stomatal pores close

Answer: (B) Stomatal pores open

Explanation: Guard cells – They are specialized plant cells in the epidermis of leaves, stems and other organs that are used to control gas exchange. It is a kidney shaped cell that surrounds the stomata. It contains chloroplasts, which are not present in other epidermal cells. Function – To open and close the stomata, help regulate transpiration, and protect the stomatal pore.

Q3. Plants that are adapted to live under plenty of sunlight are called :

(A) xerophytes
(B) heliophytes
(C) neophytes
(D) protophytes

Answer: (B) heliophytes

Explanation: Examples – Sunflowers, thyme, white clover, soft velcro, mullein. Xerophytes – A group of plants that are adapted to survive in arid regions like desert and snow – covered areas. Example – Cacti, pineapple. Pteridophytes – That plants have a vascular system and reproduce through spores. Example – Whisk Fern, Dicksonia, Selaginella. Neophytes – Plant which is not native to a geographical region and was introduced in recent history. Example – Sweet flag, small balsam, cranberries.

Q4. The leaves have a green pigment called __, which helps leaves to capture the energy from the sunlight.

(A) Cladophyll
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Xanthophyll
(D) Chlorophyll

Answer: (D) Chlorophyll

Explanation: Chlorophyll – Element present in chlorophyll is magnesium. Cytoplasm – The fluid inside the cell. It functions as a cellular metabolism, transport, and storage medium while providing structural support and facilitating signal transduction within the cell. Cladophyll – Shoot system in which leaves do not develop. Xanthophylls are yellow pigments that are one of the important divisions of the carotenoid group.

Q5. Which plant tissue is responsible for the transportation of water and minerals from the soil to the stems and leaves?

(A) Xylem
(B) Parenchyma
(C) Collenchyma
(D) Phloem

Answer: (A) Xylem

Explanation: Xylem and phloem are the two vascular tissues that are responsible for the transport of substances in plants. Phloem helps in the bidirectional transport of food.

Q6. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms?

(A) Soil
(B) Sun
(C) Water
(D) Air

Answer: (B) Sun

Explanation: The Sun is the primary source of energy for all ecosystems. In the terrestrial ecosystem Autotrophs (plants) get energy from sunlight and provide food → Herbivores (goat) → Carnivores (tiger). In aquatic ecosystems Phytoplankton get energy from sunlight and provide food → zooplankton → fishes.

Q7. The mode of nutrition in which organisms make food themselves from simple substances is called __.

(A) heterotrophic nutrition
(B) autotrophic nutrition
(C) saprotrophic nutrition
(D) phototrophic nutrition

Answer: (B) autotrophic nutrition

Explanation: Autotrophic nutrition. Examples – Plants, algae and some bacterias. Heterotrophic nutrition – Depends upon plants or other organisms for nutrition. Examples – Humans, animals, Cuscuta (Amarbel). Saprotrophic nutrition – This mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter. Examples – Fungi, yeast, and several bacteria. Phototrophic nutrition – Organisms that can obtain nutrition using light. Examples – Green plants, blue-green algae.

Q8. Plants require nutrients for their growth which can be supplied through ___.

(A) Soil, water and air
(B) Soil and air only
(C) Soil and water only
(D) Soil only

Answer: (A) Soil, water and air

Explanation: Three elements (carbon, oxygen and hydrogen) are essential to plant growth. Soil – Supplies not only minerals but also harbours nitrogen – fixing bacteria, and other microbes, holds water, supplies air to the roots and acts as a matrix that stabilises the plant.

Q9. Water comes out of the leaves in the form of vapour by a process called ___.

(A) creepers
(B) transportation
(C) venation
(D) transpiration

Answer: (D) transpiration

Explanation: Three types of Transpiration : Stomatal transpiration – Evaporation of water through stomata. Lenticular Transpiration – Evaporation of water through lenticels (small minute openings present on the stem), Cuticular Transpiration – Loss of water from the cuticle (waxy layer on the surface of leaves).

Q10. The broad, green part of the leaf is called ___ .

(A) lamina
(B) petiole
(C) veins
(D) midrib

Answer: (A) lamina

Explanation: The venation of leaves is the process of arrangement of veins and veinlets. Veins carry deoxygenated blood from the body’s tissues back to the heart for reoxygenation. They are crucial for both systemic and pulmonary circulation. The middle part of the vein of lamina is called the midrib. Petiole (mesopodium) – Lifts the lamina above the level of the stem.

Q11. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about _ percent of the energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy.

(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 1
(D) 5

Answer: (C) 1

Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants produce carbohydrates by absorbing carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight in the presence of chlorophyll and liberating chemical energy. This energy is converted into chemical energy as food.

Q12. Nuts, vegetable oil and fish are good sources of which of the following?

(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Minerals
(C) Healthy fats
(D) Proteins

Answer: (C) Healthy fats

Explanation: Monounsaturated fats and polyunsaturated fats are known as the “good fats” because they are good for heart, cholesterol, and overall health.

Q13. Which nutrient is chlorella rich in ?

(A) Roughage
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Fats
(D) Protein

Answer: (D) Protein

Explanation: Chlorella is known as space alga. It is used for the consumption of carbon dioxide provided by the astronauts and the production of oxygen in the spacecraft.

Q14. Iron, iodine and zinc can be considered as which of the following?

(A) Macronutrients
(B) Micronutrients
(C) Steroid hormone inducer
(D) Non-essential nutrients

Answer: (B) Micronutrients

Explanation: Micronutrients are nutrients that are required by the body in lesser amounts for its growth and development. Examples – Magnesium, vitamin B6, vitamin C, vitamin E, etc. Non-essential nutrients can be synthesized in the body in sufficient quantities for normal functioning. They can be obtained from food as well. Examples : Alanine, Arginine, Asparagine, Aspartic acid, etc.

Q15. Starches found in breads, cereals and pasta are made up of long chains of __.

(A) cellulose
(B) glucose
(C) maltose
(D) galactose

Answer: (B) glucose

Explanation: Carbohydrates are essential macronutrients which include sugars, fibers and starches. There are six types of sugar (C6H12O6) : Glucose, Fructose, Galactose, Lactose, Maltose, Sucrose. Starch is a polymeric carbohydrate that is composed of numerous glucose monomers.

Q16. Which of the following pairs of plastids- thing stored is NOT correct?

I. Amyloplasts – oils and fats

II. Aleuroplasts – carbohydrates

(A) Only I
(B) Both I and II
(C) Neither I nor II
(D) Only II

Answer: (C) Neither I nor II

Explanation: Plastids are found in plants and algae. Functions : perform photosynthesis, attract pollinators, restore total leaf protein and synthesize starch along with the storage of proteins, fats, and oils. Types of Plastids – Chloroplasts (used for photosynthesis), Chromoplasts (used for pigment synthesis and storage), and Leucoplasts (non-pigmented plastids that can sometimes differentiate).

Q17. How is food stored in brown algae?

(A) In the form of glucose
(B) In the form of complex carbohydrates that may be in the form of laminarin or mannitol.
(C) In the form of complex lipids
(D) In the form of oil droplets

Answer: (B) In the form of complex carbohydrates that may be in the form of laminarin or mannitol.

Explanation: In the form of complex carbohydrates that may be in the form of laminarin or mannitol.

Q18. Pneumatophores are specialised __ in hydrophytes.

(A) roots
(B) seeds
(C) fruits
(D) flowers

Answer: (A) roots

Explanation: Hydrophytes are aquatic plants that are especially suited for living in aquatic environments. Examples – Lotus (Nelumbo), Vallisneria, Potamogeton, Salvinia, hydrilla, water hyacinths etc.

Q19. At least __ of the carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through photosynthesis.

(A) a quarter
(B) a half
(C) one-tenth
(D) one-third

Answer: (B) a half

Explanation: Jan Ingenhousz is known for his discovery of photosynthesis and as the ‘father of photosynthesis’.

Q20. Capsaicinoids, carotenoids, phenolics, and vitamins are dominant chemicals in which of the following foods?

(A) Carrot
(B) Garlic
(C) Radish
(D) Chilli

Answer: (D) Chilli

Explanation: Caffeic acid is the predominant phenolic acid in carrots. Allicin chemical gives flavour to garlic. Four major organic acids are present in the roots of the radish : oxalic, malic, malonic, and erythorbic acid.

Q21. Which of the following is an essential element used in the synthesis of proteins in plants?

(A) Nitrogen
(B) Sodium
(C) Chlorine
(D) Calcium

Answer: (A) Nitrogen

Explanation: Plants are not capable of producing nitrogen, therefore, plants obtain nitrogen with the help of nitrogen-fixing bacteria like Rhizobium.

Q22. The __ is the term used for the reactions of photosynthesis that use the energy stored by the light-dependent reactions to form glucose and other carbohydrate molecules.

(A) Bloom cycle
(B) Rock cycle
(C) Macroscopic cycle
(D) Calvin cycle

Answer: (D) Calvin cycle

Explanation: Calvin cycle.

Q23. Energy and carbon requirements of the autotrophic organism are fulfilled by __ .

(A) lysis
(B) photosynthesis
(C) prognosis
(D) glycolysis

Answer: (B) photosynthesis

Explanation: Lysis refers to the breakdown of a cell caused by damage to its plasma (outer) membrane. Prognosis is the likely outcome or course of a disease; the chance of recovery or recurrence. Glycolysis is the process in which glucose is broken down to produce energy.

Q24. Which of the following does NOT figure among the main functions of the root system of a plant?

(A) Supply of food to plant parts
(B) Providing a proper anchorage to the plant parts
(C) Absorption of water from the soil`
(D) Absorption of minerals from the soil

Answer: (A) Supply of food to plant parts

Explanation: EXPLAINED The main function of the root system is to transport water and minerals to the plant. Food is transported by phloem tissue in the vascular system of plants.

Q25. Which of the following plant hormones regulates growth, particularly by stimulating cell elongation in stems?

(A) Auxin
(B) Ethylene
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Gibberellin

Answer: (A) Auxin

Explanation: Ethylene is the only plant hormone in gaseous form that regulates fruit ripening in plants. Cytokinin promotes cell division in plant roots and shoots. Gibberellin regulates various developmental processes, including germination, dormancy, flowering, flower development, and leaf and fruit senescence.

Q26. The application of plant and soil science to crop production is known as __ .

(A) Agrostology
(B) Bryology
(C) Agronomy
(D) Anatomy

Answer: (C) Agronomy

Explanation: Agrostology – It is the branch of botany concerned with grasses. Bryology – It is the branch of botany concerned with the scientific study of bryophytes. Anatomy – It is the science that studies the structure of the body and body parts.

Q27. Which of the following gases is released in the process of photosynthesis ?

(A) Nitrous dioxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Oxygen
(D) Nitrogen

Answer: (C) Oxygen

Explanation: In the presence of sunlight, Carbon dioxide + water → Carbohydrate + oxygen. Plants, green algae, and cyanobacteria can perform photosynthesis.

Q28. Severe undernutrition due to the deficiency of food and energy is termed as __.

(A) marasmus
(B) wasting
(C) kwashiorkor
(D) dementia

Answer: (A) marasmus

Explanation: Marasmus – It occurs both in children and adults. Wasting – It is a type of undernutrition that causes low weight for height. Dementia – It is the group of symptoms used to describe impaired ability to remember, think, or make decisions. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia.

Q29. Deficiency of iodine results in an insufficient amount of the __ hormone.

(A) thyroid
(B) thrombopoietin
(C) adrenaline
(D) melatonin

Answer: (A) thyroid

Explanation: odine deficiency is the most common cause of thyroid disease. Some diseases/ disorders caused by Deficiency of vitamins and minerals: Loss of vision – Vitamin A, Beriberi – Vitamin B1, Scurvy – vitaminC, Rickets – Vitamin D, Bone and tooth decay – calcium, Anaemia – Iron.

Q30. Among the choices listed, which one is NOT a form of cancer?

(A) Carcinoma
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Sarcoma

Answer: (B) Glaucoma

Explanation: Glaucoma – A group of eye diseases that can cause vision loss and blindness by damaging a nerve in the back of your eye called the optic nerve. Carcinoma – Cancer that starts in tissue lining your skin, organs and internal passageways in your body. Lymphoma – Cancer that begins in cells of the lymph system. Sarcoma – Cancers that begin in the bones and in the soft (also called connective) tissues (soft tissue sarcoma).

Q31. Among the following diseases, which one is NOT inherited?

(A) Down syndrome
(B) Cystic fibrosis
(C) Malaria
(D) Muscular dystrophy

Answer: (C) Malaria

Explanation: Malaria – Caused by parasites that are transmitted to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Down syndrome – A condition in which a person has an extra chromosome or an extra piece of a chromosome. Cystic fibrosis – Genetic condition that affects the body’s cells, tissues, and the glands that make mucus and sweat. Muscular dystrophy – A group of genetic diseases that cause progressive weakness and degeneration of skeletal muscles.

Q32. In what condition does the body’s immune system attack the actual intrinsic factor protein or the cells in your stomach lining that make it?

(A) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
(B) Hepatic cirrhosis
(C) Pernicious anaemia
(D) Hartnup disorder

Answer: (C) Pernicious anaemia

Explanation: Pernicious anemia is a relatively rare autoimmune disorder that causes diminishment in dietary vitamin B12 (cobalamin) absorption, resulting in B12 deficiency and subsequent megaloblastic anemia. Hartnup disease is an autosomal recessive disorder resulting in impaired functioning of transport protein in intestines and kidneys. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by the lack of thiamine (vitamin B1). Hepatic cirrhosis is characterized by fibrosis and nodule formation of the liver secondary to chronic injury, leading to alteration of the normal lobular organization of the liver.

Q33. What happens when old aged people get cataract ?

(A) Crystalline lens of people in old age becomes milky and cloudy
(B) Crystalline lens of people in old age becomes clear and shiny
(C) Iris becomes cloudy
(D) Pupil becomes dull

Answer: (A) Crystalline lens of people in old age becomes milky and cloudy

Explanation: Eye defects and Corrections : Cataracts – Treated with surgery. Myopia (near-sightedness) – Can see nearby objects clearly but have difficulty seeing distant objects. Corrected with concave lenses. Hyperopia (far-sightedness) – Can see distant objects clearly but have difficulty seeing nearby objects. Corrected with convex lenses. Presbyopia (age-related far-sightedness) – Lens of the eye becomes less flexible as people age, making it difficult to focus on near objects. Corrected with bifocals, progressive lenses, or surgery.

Q34. In which of the following conditions is there severe physical and mental retardation due to deficiency of iodine and thyroid hormones, especially during early pregnancy?

(A) Preeclampsia
(B) Toxoplasmosis
(C) Cretinism
(D) Syphilis

Answer: (C) Cretinism

Explanation: Toxoplasmosis – It is caused by the protozoan parasite Toxoplasma Gondii. Syphilis – It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be caused by Treponema pallidum bacteria. Preeclampsia – It is caused by the placenta not developing properly due to a problem with the blood vessels supplying it.

Q35. Which of the following tests is used to confirm the presence of typhoid fever ?

(A) Smear Examination
(B) C Reactive Protein (CRP) Test
(C) Widal Test
(D) Vivax Test

Answer: (C) Widal Test

Explanation: Widal Test : This test was first conducted in 1896 by Georges Ferdinand Widal and was named after him. It looks for O and H antibodies in a patient’s sample blood (serum). Pap smear – Used to screen for cervical cancer. C Reactive Protein (CRP) Test – A c-reactive protein test measures the level of c-reactive protein (CRP) in a sample of blood.

Q36. Which disease is caused by NOT having enough vitamin C in the diet for at least 3 months leading to weakness, anaemia, gum disease and skin problems?

(A) Rickets
(B) Pellagra
(C) Beriberi
(D) Scurvy

Answer: (D) Scurvy

Explanation: Vitamins and Deficiency disease : B1 – Beriberi, B2 – Hair loss, anaemia, sore throat. B3 – Pellagra, B6 – Certain types of Eczema, B7 – Thinning hair and Scaly skin rashes around eyes, nose, mouth, B9 – Weakness, Fatigue, Neurological Issues, B12 – macrocytic anaemia.

Q37. Which of the following is NOT the manifestation of Iron-deficiency anemia (IDA) ?

(A) Paleness of conjunctiva of eyes
(B) Blindness
(C) Soft palate
(D) General pallor

Answer: (B) Blindness

Explanation: Iron-deficiency anemia (IDA): It is the most common nutritional disorder. Vulnerable groups : Women in child–bearing age, adolescent girls, pregnant women and school age children. IDA occurs when hemoglobin production is considerably reduced and it results in low levels of hemoglobin in blood.

Q38. Which is the most obvious symptom of infantile jaundice that usually appears between the second and fourth day after birth?

(A) Cracking and irritation at the corners of mouth
(B) Swollen or puffy ankles
(C) Yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes
(D) Swelling and bleeding of the gums

Answer: (C) Yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes

Explanation: Jaundice (Hyperbilirubinemia) is a non-infectious disease wherein the liver is affected resulting in a yellowish discolouration of the skin and the white space of the eye. It is caused due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood and blood tissues. It is classified into three categories : Hepatocellular, Hemolytic and Obstructive jaundice. Symptoms – Fever, Abdominal pain, Weight loss, Drowsiness and Vomiting.

Q39. Which condition causes bone pain, poor growth, and soft, weak bones that can lead to bone deformities?

(A) Rickets
(B) Cerebral Palsy
(C) Pertussis
(D) Asplenia

Answer: (A) Rickets

Explanation: Rickets – Caused due to deficiency of Vitamin D (Calciferol). Other diseases and effects : Cerebral Palsy – Abnormal brain development. Pertussis (whooping cough) – respiratory illness, bacteria (bordetella pertussis). Asplenia – Absence of spleen.

Q40. Lack of functional small intestine can cause a malabsorption disorder eading to diarrhoea, malnutrition, weight loss etc. This particular condition is known as:

(A) Down syndrome
(B) short bowel syndrome
(C) hypoglycaemia
(D) hyperglycaemia

Answer: (B) short bowel syndrome

Explanation: Hypoglycaemia, or a “hypo”, is an abnormally low level of glucose in blood. Hyperglycaemia, or a hyper, can happen when blood glucose (sugar) levels are too high.

Q41. Vitamin B1 deficiency causes which nutritional disorder that causes problems with peripheral nerves and wasting?

(A) Xerophthalmia
(B) Pernicious anaemia
(C) Beriberi
(D) Rickets

Answer: (C) Beriberi

Explanation: Beriberi – A deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1).

Q42. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly, characterized by irregular fever, weight loss and enlargement of the spleen and liver?

(A) Japanese encephalitis
(B) Visceral leishmaniasis
(C) Diarrhea
(D) Anaplasmosis

Answer: (B) Visceral leishmaniasis

Explanation: Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar). It is caused by protozoan parasites which are transmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies. Japanese encephalitis virus is spread to people through the bite of an infected mosquito. Anaplasmosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Anaplasma phagocytophilum. Other protozoan Diseases : Amoebiasis (Entamoeba Histolytica Protozoa); Malaria (Plasmodium). Other bacteria diseases : Salmonella Tuberculosis, Whooping cough (pertussis), Chlamydia, gonorrhoea, Cholera, etc.

Q43. Which of the following diseases is a potential contender for worldwide eradication?

(A) Polio
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Measles
(D) Malaria

Answer: (A) Polio

Explanation: Polio (poliomyelitis) {caused by a virus (poliovirus)} – This virus infects your throat and intestines, causing flu-like symptoms. It can then spread to your brain and spine, causing paralysis. It mainly affects children under 5 years of age.

Q44. An excessive amount of cadmium in the human body causes :

(A) minamata
(B) anaemia
(C) alzima
(D) itai-itai

Answer: (D) itai-itai

Explanation: It is the severe form of chronic cadmium intoxication, which is characterized by osteomalacia with severe bone pain and is associated with renal tubular dysfunction. Minamata – A neurological disease caused by severe mercury poisoning.

Q45. Which type of surveillance is specifically aimed at identifying missing cases of disease ?

(A) Overt surveillance
(B) Passive surveillance
(C) Sentinel surveillance
(D) Active surveillance

Answer: (C) Sentinel surveillance

Explanation: Sentinel surveillance – Conducted at specific sites or in specific populations and may be passive or active.

Q46. Sleeping sickness is a vector borne disease caused by the infection of which microscopic parasite of the species?

(A) Trypanosoma brucei
(B) Balantioides coli
(C) Giardia duodenalis
(D) Cyclospora cayetanensis

Answer: (A) Trypanosoma brucei

Explanation: Trypanosoma brucei : A protozoan parasite that causes African trypanosomiasis, commonly known as sleeping sickness. This disease affects humans and animals, primarily in sub-Saharan Africa. Balantioides coli : A ciliated protozoan that inhabits the intestine of pigs, non-human primates and humans. Giardia : A single-celled parasite that causes diarrheal disease known as Giardiasis. Cyclospora cayetanensis : A parasite that causes gastroenteritis.

Q47. Which is an inherited blood disorder that affects the hemoglobin gene and results in ineffective erythropoiesis ?

(A) Somatostatinoma
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Venous Thromboembolism
(D) Polycythemia vera

Answer: (B) Thalassemia

Explanation: Thalassemia – It is a hereditary blood disorder in which the amount of hemoglobin in the body decreases. Somatostatinoma – A type of neuroendocrine tumor (NET). Venous Thromboembolism – A condition when a blood clot forms in a vein in the body. Polycythemia vera – A type of blood cancer.

Q48. Which Vitamin D analogue is used to treat hypoparathyroidism, refractory rickets and familial hypophosphatemia?

(A) Tacalcitol
(B) Tocopherol
(C) Ergocalciferol
(D) Retinol

Answer: (C) Ergocalciferol

Explanation: Ergocalciferol (D2). Vitamin D (Cholecalciferol – D3) – It is a fat-soluble vitamin (A, D, E, K) that helps our body to absorb calcium and phosphorus. Tacalcitol – It is a derivative of vitamin D3 belongs to a class of drugs called antipsoriatics.

Q49. Which of the following is the correct match of column-A with column-B?
Column – A (Name of Disease)Column – B (Affected Organs)
i. Alzheimer’s diseasesa. Salivary glands
ii. Diphtheriab. Reproductive tract
iii. Gonorrhoeac. Brain
iv. Mumpsd. Nose and throat

(A) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(B) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(D) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

Answer: (D) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

Explanation: Diphtheria is an infectious bacterial disease caused by a bacterium called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that produces toxins that can cause breathing difficulties, heart rhythm problems, and even death. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection disease. It most commonly affects the urethra, rectum or throat. Mumps is an infectious disease caused by a virus. This can cause painful inflammation of our parotid salivary glands (parotitis).

Q50. Select the correct option about Kwashiorkor.

Statement A: It is a form of malnutrition caused by a lack of fat in the diet.

Statement B: Children who develop Kwashiorkor may not grow or develop properly and may remain stunted for the rest of their lives.

(A) Only statement B is correct
(B) Both statements A and B are correct
(C) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(D) Only statement A is correct

Answer: (A) Only statement B is correct

Explanation: Kwashiorkor is caused by deficiency of protein in the diet which causes fluid retention and a swollen, distended abdomen, and most commonly affected babies between 1-3 years of age, particularly in developing countries with high levels of poverty and food insecurity. In 1933, Cicely Williams was the first in Africa who described Kwashiorkor.

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