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Q1. Name a reproductive strategy in which parasites take advantage of the care of other individuals of the same species or different species to raise their young.

(A) Brood parasitism
(B) Sexual parasitism
(C) Klepto parasitism
(D) Competitive parasitism

Answer: (A) Brood parasitism

Explanation: Brood parasitism – A subclass of parasitism and phenomenon and behavioural pattern of certain animals, brood parasites, that rely on others to raise their young. This appears among birds, insects and fish. Example – crow (host) and koel (parasite). Sexual parasitism – Tiny males attach themselves to gigantic females so tightly that the tissues of the two animals eventually fuse. The male essentially turns into a sperm-producing parasite. Example – deep-sea anglerfishes. Klepto parasitism – A form of feeding in which one animal deliberately takes food from another. Example – Hyenas and Lions. Competitive parasitism – When a parasite influences the competitive interaction between two species.

Q2. Identify an organism that exhibits metagenesis.

(A) Obelia
(B) Spongilla
(C) Sycon
(D) Euspongia

Answer: (A) Obelia

Explanation: Obelia (sea fur) : A genus of hydrozoans. It forms a light-brown or whitish plant-like fur in the seas. Metagenesis – The phenomenon in which one generation of certain plants and animals reproduce asexually, followed by the sexually reproducing generation. Spongilla – A genus of freshwater sponges. Sycon – A genus of calcareous sponges belonging to the family Sycettidae. Euspongia – The typical genus of fibrous sponges of the family Spongiidae, having a very elastic and homogeneous framework throughout.

Q3. The period of life, when the body undergoes changes leading to reproductive maturity is called __ .

(A) maturity
(B) adolescence
(C) cloning
(D) budding

Answer: (B) adolescence

Explanation: Adolescence.

Q4. The stage of the embryo in which all the body parts can be identified is called _ .

(A) Uterus
(B) Ovulation
(C) Foetus
(D) Zygote

Answer: (C) Foetus

Explanation: Uterus – A pear-shaped and hollow muscular organ located in the female pelvis between the bladder and rectum. Ovulation – A phase of the female menstrual cycle that involves the release of an egg (ovum) from one of the ovaries. Zygote – A fertilized egg cell that results from the union of a female gamete (egg, or ovum) with a male gamete (sperm).

Q5. Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds is called ___.

(A) Viticulture
(B) Horticulture
(C) Pisciculture
(D) Sericulture

Answer: (C) Pisciculture

Explanation: Pisciculture.

Q6. Which of the following is NOT an example of “viviparous” animals?

(A) Bird
(B) Dog
(C) Cat
(D) Cow

Answer: (A) Bird

Explanation: Viviparous – Animals that give birth to offspring, both fertilisation and the development of the embryo takes place inside the female reproductive system. Examples – Dolphin, Whales, Humans, Cat, Elephant, Dogs, Cow. Oviparous – Animals that lay Eggs which can be either fertilised or unfertilised. Examples – Birds, lizards, frogs, chickens, alligators, snakes, crocodiles, fishes, etc.

Q7. The transformation of the larva into an adult through drastic change is called _.

(A) budding
(B) shifting
(C) bulging
(D) metamorphosis

Answer: (D) metamorphosis

Explanation: Metamorphosis – A biological process involving an abrupt change in the animal’s body structure due to cell growth and differentiation. The new individuals which are born from the eggs continue to grow till they become adults. In some animals, the young ones may look very different from the adults. Metamorphosis cycle has four stages : Egg, Larva, Pupa and Adult. Examples : Butterflies, moths, frogs, toads, etc.

Q8. How many arteries are there in an umbilical cord?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) Three

Answer: (B) Two

Explanation: The umbilical cord is a tube that connects the mother with the baby in her womb during pregnancy. It normally contains two arteries (the umbilical arteries) and one vein (the umbilical vein).

Q9. __ is the ability of a single cell to produce a fertile, adult individual.

(A) Pluripotency
(B) Totipotency
(C) Cloning
(D) Mutation

Answer: (B) Totipotency

Explanation: Totipotency. Pluripotency is defined as the capacity of individual cells to initiate all lineages of the mature organism. Cloning is a technique scientists use to make exact genetic copies of living things. A mutation occurs when a DNA gene is damaged or changed in such a way as to alter the genetic message carried by that gene.

Q10. The phenomenon whereby the female gamete undergoes development to form new organisms without fertilisation in some organisms like honey bees, some lizards and birds is called :

(A) Budding
(B) Fragmentation
(C) Apomixis
(D) Parthenogenesis

Answer: (D) Parthenogenesis

Explanation: Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction in which an egg can develop into an embryo without being fertilized by a sperm. Budding or blastogenesis is a type of asexual reproduction in which a new organism develops from an outgrowth or bud due to cell division at one particular site. Apomixis refers to the formation of the plant from a seed without fertilization or normal sexual reproduction.

Q11. Which of the following is the primary sex organ in females?

(A) Fallopian tube
(B) Ovary
(C) Uterus
(D) Vagina

Answer: (B) Ovary

Explanation: The ovary is the primary female reproductive organ in which the ova or eggs are produced, present in humans and other vertebrates as a pair. The fallopian tubes, also known as uterine tubes, oviducts or salpinges (singular salpinx), are paired tubes in the human female that stretch from the uterus to the ovaries. In mammals, the vagina is the elastic, muscular part of the female genital tract. In humans, it extends from the vestibule to the cervix.

Q12. The reproduction process in which only a single parent is involved is called _.

(A) In vitro fertilization
(B) external fertilization
(C) sexual reproduction
(D) asexual reproduction

Answer: (D) asexual reproduction

Explanation: Asexual reproduction – Observed in both multicellular and unicellular organisms and does not involve any kind of gamete fusion. Offspring are genetically similar to their parents. Different types : Binary Fission – Cell divide (Archaea and Bacteria). Budding (Bacteria, yeast, corals, flatworms, Jellyfish and sea anemones). Fragmentation (Spirogyra, Planaria). Vegetative Propagation (Potato tubers, runners, onion). Sporogenesis (Plants, Algae, Fungi).

Q13. The innermost part of a flower is called the _.

(A) stamens
(B) pistil
(C) petals
(D) sepals

Answer: (B) pistil

Explanation: Pistil (the female reproductive part of a flower). It has three parts which are stigma, style, and ovary. Sepals (collectively called the calyx) are modified leaves that encase the developing flower. Petals (collectively known as the corolla) are modified leaves that surround the reproductive parts of flowers. Stamen is the male part of the flower. Generally, it is shaped like a bowling pin and is located in the flower’s center. It consists of Anther and Filament.

Q14. Which of the following is not an asexual form of reproduction in plants?

(A) Spore formation
(B) Vegetative propagation
(C) Budding
(D) Pollination

Answer: (D) Pollination

Explanation: Flowering plants reproduce sexually through a process called pollination. It is the act of transferring pollen grains from the male anther of a flower to the female stigma. The two types of pollination are self-pollination (if pollen is transferred to it from any flower of the same plant) and cross-pollination (if the pollen comes from a flower of a different plant).

Q15. Productivity of an ecosystem is composed of which of the following?

(A) Gross productivity and primary productivity
(B) Primary and secondary productivity
(C) Net productivity and consumption
(D) Net primary productivity and gross primary productivity

Answer: (D) Net primary productivity and gross primary productivity

Explanation: Gross primary productivity is the rate at which organic matter is produced through photosynthesis, while net primary productivity is the total amount of biomass accessible for heterotrophic use.

Q16. How do the red algae reproduce vegetatively?

(A) Fission
(B) Spore formation
(C) Fragmentation
(D) Cutting

Answer: (C) Fragmentation

Explanation: Fragmentation – It is a type of asexual reproduction in which an organism simply breaks into individual pieces at maturity. These individual small pieces then grow to form a new organism, for example Spirogyra.

Q17. Which part of a flower is the sticky surface at the top of the pistil, it traps and holds the pollen?

(A) Style
(B) Stigma
(C) Sepal
(D) Ovary

Answer: (B) Stigma

Explanation: It traps and holds the pollen. During the process of pollination, pollen moves from the male parts to the female parts i.e stigma where pollen germinates.

Q18. A type of asexual reproduction in which new plants are produced from roots, stems, leaves and buds are known as :

(A) vegetative propagation
(B) grafting propagation
(C) budding propagation
(D) layering propagation

Answer: (A) vegetative propagation

Explanation: Layering is a technique of plant propagation where the new plant remains at least partially attached to the mother plant while forming new roots.

Q19. Which structural layer in some cell types is composed mainly of carbohydrates like cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin in the ratio 4 : 3 : 3 and some fatty substances like wax?

(A) cell soluble
(B) plasma membrane
(C) cell wall
(D) nuclear envelope

Answer: (C) cell wall

Explanation: Cell walls – They are found in most of the plant cells, bacteria, algae, fungi, and some archaea. The cell wall is a rigid semi-permeable structure made up of cellulose or chitin.

Q20. The primary function of which channel protein is to transport water across the cell membrane in response to the osmotic gradient created by active solute transport?

(A) Aquaporins
(B) Mucins
(C) Transferrin
(D) Cupredoxins

Answer: (A) Aquaporins

Explanation: These are a family of small, integral membrane proteins that are expressed broadly throughout the animal and plant kingdoms. Mucins : Heavily O-glycosylated linear glycoproteins that are secreted by higher organisms to protect and lubricate epithelial cell surfaces. Transferrin : A blood plasma glycoprotein that plays a central role in iron metabolism and is responsible for ferric-ion delivery. Cupredoxins : Small proteins that contain type I copper centers. They function as electron transfer shuttles between proteins.

Q21. Most centrioles have a _____ structure of triple microtubules, which are present in pairs and arranged orthogonally after duplication.

(A) 9 + 3
(B) 6 + 1
(C) 9 + 0
(D) 8 + 0

Answer: (C) 9 + 0

Explanation: The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella, and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cells. The central part of the proximal region of the centriole is also proteinaceous and called the hub, which is connected with tubules of the peripheral triplets by radial spokes made of protein. In animal cells, centrioles also form spindle apparatus during cell division.

Q22. Which is a reversible, fluorescent red, acidic dye used to stain cytoplasm, red blood cells, collagen and muscle fibres for histological examination?

(A) Eosin
(B) Safranin
(C) Crystal violet
(D) Alizarin

Answer: (A) Eosin

Explanation: Eosin (the aniline dye) is an acid dye that stains cytoplasm, muscle, and connective tissues in various shades of pink and orange. Safranin is a lipophilic cationic dye which accumulates in mitochondria according to the inside negative potential in energised mitochondria. Alizarin (C14H8O4) is an organic compound that has been used throughout history as a prominent red dye, principally for dyeing textile fabrics. It was derived from the roots of plants of the madder genus.

Q23. Which cellular structure controls cell motility, adhesion, and polarity at interphase, and facilitates the organisation of spindle poles during mitosis ?

(A) Centrosomes
(B) Peroxisomes
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Glyoxysomes

Answer: (A) Centrosomes

Explanation: Centrosomes – Membrane – free organelles that serve as main microtubule-organizing centers in distinct eukaryotic lineages. Peroxisomes – Specialized for carrying out oxidative reactions using molecular oxygen. Lysosomes – Membrane enclosed organelles that contain an array of enzymes capable of breaking down all types of biological polymers. Glyoxysomes – Specialized peroxisomes found in plants and also in filamentous fungi.

Q24. What is the percentage of proteins in the cell membrane?

(A) 80-100%
(B) 20-40%
(C) 60-80%
(D) 40-60%

Answer: (D) 40-60%

Explanation: Cell membrane (plasma membrane) – It separates the interior of the cell from the outside environment. It is composed primarily of fatty-acid-based lipids and proteins. The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all forms of life. It was discovered by a British scientist, Robert Hooke in 1665.

Q25. What do you call the fluid matrix filling in the cell ?

(A) Golgi bodies
(B) Ribosome
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Plasmid

Answer: (C) Cytoplasm

Explanation: It is composed of water, salts, and various organic molecules. Golgi bodies (Golgi apparatus) – It helps process and package proteins and lipid molecules, especially proteins destined to be exported from the cell.

Q26. The main function of centriole is:

(A) to help cell division in animal cell
(B) to help plant cell for multiplication
(C) to maintain mineral composition in bacterial cell
(D) to maintain rigidity in plant cell

Answer: (A) to help cell division in animal cell

Explanation: Centrosome – An organelle containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles. Centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella, and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cells. It plays a role in organizing microtubules that serve as the cell’s skeletal system. They help determine the locations of the nucleus and other organelles within the cell.

Q27. During Which phase of the cell cycle does metabolic changes assemble the cytoplasmic material required for mitosis and cytokinesis?

(A) G2 phase
(B) G1 phase
(C) M phase
(D) S phase

Answer: (A) G2 phase

Explanation: The different phases of a cell cycle include : Interphase (This phase includes the G1 phase, S phase and the G2 phase), M phase (This is the mitotic phase and is divided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase) and Cytokinesis (In this phase the cytoplasm of the cell divides). S phase – Cell synthesises a complete copy of the DNA. M phase – Cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. G1 phase – First gap phase, the cell grows physically larger.

Q28. How big are red blood cells in diameter ?

(A) 40.0 μm
(B) 7.5 μm
(C) 2.0 μm
(D) 4.0 μm

Answer: (B) 7.5 μm

Explanation: Red blood cells (erythrocytes) – It is rich in hemoglobin, an iron rich molecule that can bind oxygen and also imparts red color to the blood. RBC is produced in the bone marrow (erythropoiesis process) and has a life cycle of 120 days. RBC is recycled by macrophages. RBC Disorders: Anemia (Lower than normal RBC), Polycythemia (Excess of RBC), Sickle Cell Disease (Genetic Disorder causes RBCs to take on a crescent shape), Thalassemia (Genetic blood disorders that result in abnormal hemoglobin production).

Q29. Which cell organelle appears as rounded or sausage-shaped structures under electron microscopy, measuring about 0.5 – 1.0 μm in diameter and 2-8 μm in length ?

(A) Mitochondria
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Plastids
(D) Ribosomes

Answer: (A) Mitochondria

Explanation: Mitochondria (Powerhouse of the cell). Lysosome – It contains digestive enzymes. If the cell gets damaged, then lysosomes digest their own cell, hence Known as Suicide Bag of cell.

Q30. What is the length of a bacterial cell?

(A) 30 to 50 μm
(B) 0 to 3 μm
(C) 1 to 40 μm
(D) 3 to 5 μm

Answer: (D) 3 to 5 μm

Explanation: Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms. Bacterial cell – Prokaryotic cells, lacking well – defined nuclei and membrane-bound organelles, and with chromosomes composed of a single closed DNA circle. Length of cells in organisms : Human – 20-30 micrometres. Plants – 10 to 100 micrometers.

Q31. What do you call a Glycocalyx that is a loose sheath type?

(A) Slime layer
(B) Tubules
(C) Capsule
(D) Mesosomes

Answer: (A) Slime layer

Explanation: It is a type of glycocalyx that is loosely organized and not firmly attached to the cell wall. It is a thin, diffuse layer of polysaccharides and proteins that surrounds some bacterial cells. The slime layer can help bacteria adhere to surfaces and protect them from dehydration. The glycocalyx is a dense, gel-like meshwork that surrounds the cell, constituting a physical barrier for any object to enter the cell.

Q32. Which process is sometimes called “reduction division” because it reduces the number of chromosomes to half the normal number to form sperm and eggs?

(A) Amitosis
(B) Meiosis
(C) Cytokinesis
(D) Karyokinesis

Answer: (B) Meiosis

Explanation: The cell cycle is divided into two basic phases : Interphase and M Phase (Mitosis phase). The M Phase represents the phase when the actual cell division or mitosis occurs and the interphase represents the phase between two successive M phases (Cytokinesis and Karyokinesis).

Q33. Which is the primary structural component responsible for most of the mechanical strength of the cell wall?

(A) Heparin
(B) Glycogen
(C) Chitin
(D) Cellulose

Answer: (D) Cellulose

Explanation: Cell wall not only gives shape to the cell and protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection, it also helps in cell-to-cell interaction and provides a barrier to undesirable macromolecules. Algae have a cell wall, made of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate, while in other plants it consists of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins.

Q34. By what name are the flat membrane-enclosed sacs present in the Golgi apparatus known?

(A) Lamellae
(B) Cisternae
(C) Cristae
(D) Stroma

Answer: (B) Cisternae

Explanation: Cisternae – It is a membrane-bound cell organelle consisting of a series of flattened membranous sacs that look like stacked pouches. Organelles present in cells – Nucleus, Endoplasmic Reticulum, Mitochondria, Centriole, Ribosome, Vacuole, Lysosome.

Q35. Which cell found in the bone marrow acts as a repair system for the body ?

(A) Bone Cells
(B) Fat Cells
(C) Muscle cells
(D) Stem cells

Answer: (D) Stem cells

Explanation: Stem cells – Unspecialised cells which divide to produce two daughter cells, one of which remains a stem cell and the other one becomes differentiated. The major sources of stem cells are embryos and adult tissues (adult stem cells). Stem cells are characterised into three types depending on their potency : Unipotent cells, pluripotent cells and multipotent cells.

Q36. During cell division, the formation of a new cell wall is followed by the accumulation of:

(A) peristome
(B) periplasm
(C) phragmoplast
(D) protoplast

Answer: (C) phragmoplast

Explanation: Phragmoplast is a plant cell specialized cylindrical structure formed during late cytokinesis. Periplasm – The space is the area between the cell wall and the plasma membrane. The term Protoplast was introduced by Hanstein. It refers to the entire cell, excluding the cell wall. The Peristome is a teeth-like projection that surrounds the mouth of the capsule in most of the members of Bryidae (Mosses) of bryophytes.

Q37. Which part of a cell converts nutrients into energy ?

(A) Cell membrane
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Chromosome

Answer: (C) Mitochondria

Explanation: Mitochondria – Double membrane-bound cell organelles present in most eukaryotic organisms (such as animals, plants and fungi). Chromosome – A thread – like microscopic structure formed by coiling of DNA packaged with protein containing all genetic material of an organism.

Q38. Which cell analysis technique is used to rapidly analyse single cells or particles as they flow through single or multiple lasers while suspended in a buffered salt-based solution?

(A) Mass spectroscopy
(B) Flow cytometry
(C) Electrochemical analysis
(D) Multiple displacement amplification

Answer: (B) Flow cytometry

Explanation: Flow cytometry – It is a laser-based technique used to detect and analyze the chemical and physical characteristics of cells or particles, It is to evaluate bone marrow, peripheral blood and other fluids in your body. Mass spectroscopy – Used to identify and quantify molecules by measuring their mass-to-charge ratio. Electrochemical analysis – Used to measure the electrical properties of cells or particles. Multiple displacement amplification – Used to amplify DNA.

Q39. The division of cytoplasm is known as:

(A) karyokinesis
(B) cytoskeleton
(C) cytosol
(D) cytokinesis

Answer: (D) cytokinesis

Explanation: Cytokinesis : It is a physical process which divides the cytoplasm of a parental cell into two daughter cells. Karyokinesis : Division of the nucleus during mitosis or meiosis. Cytoskeleton : It is a network of fibres forming the eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells and archaeans. Cytosol : The fluid in which organelles of the cell reside. The primary component of cytosol is water.

Q40. Which of the following cell organelles can make copies of themselves?

(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) Vacuole
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Mitochondria

Answer: (D) Mitochondria

Explanation: Mitochondria (Powerhouse of cells). Vacuole – A membrane-bound cell organelle. In animal cells, vacuoles are generally small and help sequester waste products.

Q41. Which type of haploid unicellular eukaryote cells has a diameter of ~10 μm, and about half of their volume is occupied by cup-shaped chloroplasts ?

(A) Hydrodictyon
(B) Ulva
(C) Chlamydomonas
(D) Oedogonium

Answer: (C) Chlamydomonas

Explanation: Chlamydomonas : Single -celled green algae found in both freshwater and marine habitats. It reproduces asexually by zoospores, hypnospores. Hydrodictyon (water net) : green algae, found in freshwater. Ulva (sea lettuce) : Green algae, found in marine environments. Oedogonium : Green algae, found in freshwater ponds, streams, and even in some terrestrial environments with high humidity.

Q42. Which cell organelles are known as cell’s post office ?

(A) Nucleus
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Ribosome
(D) Plastid

Answer: (B) Golgi apparatus

Explanation: It is responsible for processing and packaging proteins and lipid molecules, particularly those destined for export. Nucleus – The membrane enclosed organelle within a cell that contains the chromosomes. Ribosome – An intracellular structure composed of RNA and protein, responsible for protein synthesis within the cell.

Q43. Which of the following cells are found in the liver of mammals?

(A) Purkinje cells
(B) Microglial cells
(C) Kupffer cells
(D) Sensory cells

Answer: (C) Kupffer cells

Explanation: They are resident liver macrophages and maintain liver functions. They are the first innate immune cells and protect the liver from bacterial infections. Purkinje cells – They are a unique type of neuron, specific to the cerebellar cortex. Microglia cells are resident cells of the brain that regulate brain development, maintenance of neuronal networks, and injury repair. Sensory cells – They occur in specialized organs such as the eyes, ears, nose, and mouth, as well as internal organs.

Q44. Which of the following cell organelles is made up of ribosomal RNA and protein?

(A) Ribosome
(B) Nucleus
(C) Golgi body
(D) Lysosome

Answer: (A) Ribosome

Explanation: Cell is the structural and functional unit of all living organisms. It has three main parts – Cell membrane, Cytoplasm organelles, and Nucleus.

Q45. In cells, proteins are synthesized in __ .

(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Nucleus
(D) Ribosome

Answer: (D) Ribosome

Explanation: Ribosome – These are non – membrane bound organelles found in all cells (eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic). Animal cells contain a non – membrane -bound organelle called centrosome which helps in cell division.

Q46. Mitochondria is not found in __.

(A) yeast
(B) bacteria
(C) algae
(D) fungi

Answer: (B) bacteria

Explanation: Bacteria (Discovered by Leeuwenhoek (father of microbiology). Mitochondria generates most of the chemical energy needed to power the cell’s biochemical reactions and the chemical energy produced by the mitochondria is stored in a small molecule called adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Mitochondria contain their own small chromosomes (mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA).

Q47. In a plant, __ is present in the middle lamella, primary cell and secondary walls and accumulates in the initial stages of development during cell expansion.

(A) chitin
(B) gelatin
(C) alginate
(D) pectin

Answer: (D) pectin

Explanation: Pectin (polysaccharide) – A soluble fibre found in fruits. Chitin – A long chain polymer of N -acetylglucosamine, an amide derivative of glucose, forms a long chain polymer. Present in cell walls and septa of all pathogenic fungi and cyst walls of pathogenic amoebae. Gelatin – A food ingredient found in soups, broths, sauces, gummy candies, marshmallows, cosmetics, and medications. Alginate – Naturally occurring anionic polymer typically obtained from brown seaweed.

Q48. Select the correct statement.

(A) Mitochondria and nucleus are found in bacteria.
(B) Ribosomes, mitochondria and lysosomes are found in animal cells.
(C) Chloroplast, ribosomes and nucleus are present in fungal cells.
(D) Mitochondria and nucleus are absent in plant cells.

Answer: (B) Ribosomes, mitochondria and lysosomes are found in animal cells.

Explanation: Bacteria do not have a nucleus or membrane-bound organelles. They have ribosomes. Fungal cells have ribosomes and a nucleus. They also have other organelles like endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria, ribosomes, Golgi apparatus and vacuoles. Plant cells have ribosomes (Responsible for protein synthesis) mitochondria, nucleus, and chloroplasts (responsible for photosynthesis).

Q49. Which of the following statements is correct regarding cell membrane?

I. The membrane is selectively permeable to some molecules present on either side of it.

II. Water may also move across this membrane from lower to higher concentration.

(A) Only II
(B) Only I
(C) Neither I nor II
(D) Both I and II

Answer: (B) Only I

Explanation: Cell membrane (outermost covering of the cell). Function of the plasma membrane – Transport of molecules across it. Many molecules can move actively across the membrane without any requirement of energy and this type of transport is called passive transport. Water may also move across this membrane from higher to lower concentration, and the movement of water by diffusion is known as osmosis.

Q50. Which form of leucoplast specialises in oil synthesis and storage and is mainly found in the layer of cells in pollen grains that develop pollen grains?

(A) Elaioplasts
(B) Proteinoplasts
(C) Chloroplasts
(D) Gerontoplasts

Answer: (A) Elaioplasts

Explanation: Elaioplasts – These are plastids that are specialized in oil synthesis and found primarily in the layer of cells. Gerontoplasts – Type of plastid formed during leaf senescence (deterioration with age), Derived from – Chloroplasts. Proteinoplasts are specialized organelles found in plant cells. Chloroplasts are organelle that contains the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll that captures sunlight and converts it into useful energy, Found in green plants and algae.

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