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Q1. Trade liberalisation has helped India improve its _ in industries with medium-to-high technology content.

(A) imports
(B) comparative advantage
(C) fuel efficiency
(D) labour intensity

Answer: (B) comparative advantage

Explanation: Comparative advantage – It refers to a country’s ability to produce goods and services at a lower opportunity cost than its trading partners. Trade liberalization – The removal or reduction of barriers, such as tariffs and quotas, to encourage free and open exchange of goods and services between nations for economic growth.

Q2. Factor cost is also known as:

(A) market cost
(B) ex-factory cost
(C) input cost
(D) output cost

Answer: (C) input cost

Explanation: Input cost: The actual cost incurred on goods and services produced by industries and firms. Factor costs include all the costs of the factors of production to produce a given product in an economy. It includes the costs of land, labour, capital and raw material, transportation etc. Ex-factory cost – The selling cost of the products less any price accompanies the delivery of the products to the customer. The market price – The current price at which a goods or service can be purchased or sold.

Q3. Import substitution strategy is commonly called __.

(A) make in India campaign
(B) outward looking trade strategy
(C) balanced trade strategy
(D) inward looking trade strategy

Answer: (D) inward looking trade strategy

Explanation: Inward Looking Trade Strategy – Trade and Economic policy that advocates replacing foreign imports with domestic production. Example – Instead of importing vehicles made in a foreign country, industries would be encouraged to produce them in India itself. It protects imports in two ways – Tariffs and Quotas. Outward-looking trade strategy : Direct transition from a simple, open trade policy to vigorous promotion of manufactured exports by all internationally tolerated means, without going through an in-between phase of high protection.

Q4. The consumption of fixed capital is also known as _.

(A) depreciation
(B) net investment
(C) appreciation
(D) gross investment

Answer: (A) depreciation

Explanation: depreciation – means loss of fixed assets overtime due to wear and tear. The most common types of depreciation methods include straight-line, double declining balance, units of production, and sum of years digits. Fixed capital consists of assets that are not consumed or destroyed in the production of a good or service and can be used multiple times.

Q5. Commercialisation of agriculture is an indication of _ .

(A) income surplus
(B) producers’ surplus
(C) consumer surplus
(D) marketable surplus

Answer: (D) marketable surplus

Explanation: Marketable surplus – Difference between the total output produced by a farmer and his self consumption from that output. Consumer surplus – Difference between willingness to pay for a good and the price that consumer actually pays for it. Producer surplus – Total amount that a producer benefits from producing and selling a quantity of a good at the market price.

Q6. What was the minimum consumption expenditure (β‚Ή per capita per month) set as a benchmark of the poverty line for rural India in 1979?

(A) 49.09
(B) 43.5
(C) 56.7
(D) 62.1

Answer: (A) 49.09

Explanation: 49.09 . 1979 Planning Commission task force on poverty estimation suggested a minimum calorie consumption of 2400 calories for rural areas (with a consumption expenditure of 49.1 Rs per capita per month) and 2100 calories for urban areas (with a consumption expenditure of Rs 56.64 per capita per month). Some committees for poverty line – Lakdawala Committee (submitted report in 1993), Tendulkar Committee (2009), Rangarajan Committee (2014).

Q7. The production function can be expressed as_________ (where L is labour and C is capital and Q is the maximum output that can be produced)

(A) Q = f(C)
(B) L = f(Q,C)
(C) Q = f(L)
(D) Q = f(L,C)

Answer: (D) Q = f(L,C)

Explanation: Q = f(L,C). Production function refers to the functional relationship between the quantity of a good produced (output) and factors of production (inputs). Mathematically, such a basic relationship between inputs and outputs may be expressed as: Q = f( L, C, N ). Where Q = Quantity of output, L = Labour, C = Capital, N = Land.

Q8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the features of a perfectly competitive market?

I. The market consists of a large number of buyers and sellers.

II. Information is perfect.

(A) Only I
(B) Neither I nor II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Only II

Answer: (C) Both I and II

Explanation: Both I and II. Other features of a perfectly competitive market: 1. Each firm produces and sells a homogenous product. i.e the product of one firm cannot be differentiated from the product of any other firm. 2. Entry into the market as well as exit from the market are free for firms. Total revenue (TR) of the firm = price of the good (p) Γ— firm’s output (q).

Q9. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the marginal utility of a commodity?

I. It is the change in total utility due to consumption of one additional unit of a commodity.

II. It diminishes with increase in consumption of the commodity.

(A) Both I and II
(B) Only II
(C) only I
(D) Neither I nor II

Answer: (A) Both I and II

Explanation: Both I and II. Marginal utility: It is a measure that defines the additional satisfaction a customer receives from one more unit of a product or service. Ordinal utility: It explains that the satisfaction level after consuming any goods or services cannot be scaled in numbers. However, these things can be arranged in the order of preference.

Q10. Consider the given consumption function of country X and answer the following question

C = 100 + 0.8Y

What is the value of autonomous consumption (A) and marginal propensity to consume (MPC) in the given equation ?

(A) A = 0.8, MPC = 100
(B) A = 100, MPC = 80
(C) A = 80, MPC = 0.10
(D) A = 100, MPC = 0.8

Answer: (D) A = 100, MPC = 0.8

Explanation: A = 100, MPC = 0.8. The correct limit of marginal propensity to consume is 0 < MPC < 1. Marginal propensity to consume (MPC) refers to the proportion of extra income that a person spends instead of saving. The average propensity to consume is the percentage of income spent. Marginal propensity to save (MPS): An economic measure of how savings change, given a change in income.

Q11. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the production possibility frontier?

I. It gives the combinations between two goods that can be produced when the resources of the economy are fully utilised.

II. It illustrates the production possibilities of the economy.

(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II

Answer: (C) Both I and II

Explanation: Both I and II. The production possibility frontier (PPF) is a curve on a graph that illustrates the possible quantities that can be produced of two products if both depend upon the same finite resource for their manufacture.

Q12. In India, which of the following is NOT an objective of the National Manufacturing Policy?

(A) To increase the sectoral share of manufacturing in the GDP to at least 25% by 2022.
(B) To double the exports of manufacturing goods by 2022.
(C) To increase the rate of job creation so as to create 100 million additional jobs by 2022.
(D) To enhance global competitiveness, domestic value addition, techno – logical depth and environmental sustainability of growth.

Answer: (B) To double the exports of manufacturing goods by 2022.

Explanation: The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry has notified the National Manufacturing Policy (NMP) on November 4, 2011. Other Objectives: Increase manufacturing sector growth to 12-14% over the medium term, Enhance global competitiveness of Indian manufacturing, Increase domestic value addition and technological β€˜depth’ in manufacturing. National Investment & Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) : An important instrumentality of the manufacturing policy; have been conceived as large integrated industrial townships.

Q13. Which department of the Government of India declares the minimum support prices ?

(A) Department of Economic Affairs
(B) Department of Agriculture and Cooperation
(C) Department of Disinvestment
(D) Department of Expenditure

Answer: (B) Department of Agriculture and Cooperation

Explanation: Department of Agriculture and Cooperation. The Minimum Support Price is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP).

Q14. What is the full form of WPI?

(A) Wholesale Product Index
(B) Wholesale Price Information
(C) World Product Index
(D) Wholesale Price Index

Answer: (D) Wholesale Price Index

Explanation: Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is an inflation indicator that measures change in the overall price level of goods before they are sold at retail. WPI = (Current Price / Base Period Price) Γ— 100

Q15. The ‘transformation curve’ is also known as the:

(A) production possibility curve
(B) indifference curve
(C) supply curve
(D) demand curve

Answer: (A) production possibility curve

Explanation: Production possibility curve. The Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) is a model used to show the trade offs associated with allocating resources between the production of two goods. Transformation curve is defined as the maximum amount of commodity X obtainable for any given amount of commodity Y, and vice versa.

Q16. __ refers to money that has already been spent and which cannot be recovered.

(A) Replacement cost
(B) Opportunity cost
(C) Sunk cost
(D) Imputed cost

Answer: (C) Sunk cost

Explanation: Sunk cost is the cost which is not altered by a change in current business activity. Replacement cost is the cost of replacing an asset, plant, machinery, equipment etc. Opportunity cost refers to the cost of the next best alternative foregone in order to pursue the chosen action. Imputed cost are hypothetical costs which are considered just for the purpose of decision making and do not involve any actual cash outflow.

Q17. A higher __ index reflects inequality in income distribution.

(A) CPI
(B) Gini
(C) GDP
(D) NDP

Answer: (B) Gini

Explanation: Gini coefficient measures inequality in income distribution (0- perfect equality; 100- perfect inequality).

Q18. Which of the following statements about transfer payments are correct?

1) Transfer payments are made by the government to households.

2) Pension, scholarship etc. are not a part of the transfer payments.

3) Transfer payments are often used as a means of redistributing income within a society.

(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: 1 and 3 only. Transfer payments are the receipts which the residents of a country get for β€˜free’, without having to provide any goods or services in return. They consist of gifts, remittances and grants. Example – Unemployment Allowance, Social Security Payments, Old age Pension, scholarship etc.

Q19. Which of the following statements about GDP and Welfare are correct?

1) GDP of a country is an indicator of the welfare of the people.

2) If GDP is rising, welfare may not rise equally.

3) GDP and Welfare both are not related to each other.

(A) Only 1 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 2

Answer: (D) Only 1 and 2

Explanation: Only 1 and 2. GDP or Gross Domestic Product is the total value of all the final goods and services produced within the domestic boundaries of a country during a year. GDP is also used as a measure of welfare of people. The Welfare of people depends upon the per head availability of goods and services.

Q20. Which of the following options represents the total income earned by individuals from all the sources before deduction of personal income taxes?

(A) Disposable income
(B) Personal income
(C) Gross income
(D) National income

Answer: (B) Personal income

Explanation: Personal income. National income – the total value of all the final services and goods produced in an economy during a specific period of time. Gross income – Total income earned by an individual on a paycheck before taxes and other deductions. Disposable income – (Personal income – Taxes).

Q21. Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating Net Indirect Taxes ?

(A) Indirect Taxes βˆ’ Subsidies
(B) Direct Taxes + Subsidies
(C) Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
(D) Direct Taxes βˆ’ Subsidies

Answer: (A) Indirect Taxes βˆ’ Subsidies

Explanation: Indirect Taxes – Subsidies. Net Indirect Taxes : Taxes that are levied on services and products and are collected by the seller. Examples – Sales tax, Value-added tax (VAT), Excise tax, Customs duty, Service tax. Indirect taxes are transferable taxes where the liability to pay can be shifted to others like Value Added Tax.

Q22. Which of the following is a FALSE statement in the context of the government budget?

(A) There is no future obligation to return the amount in case of revenue receipts.
(B) Profit earned through Indian Railways is a part of non-tax revenue.
(C) Fees and fines collected is an example of capital receipt.
(D) Recovery of a loan is a capital receipt.

Answer: (C) Fees and fines collected is an example of capital receipt.

Explanation: Examples of Capital Receipts – loans raised by the government from the public (market borrowings), borrowing by the government from the RBI, commercial banks and other financial institutions, loans received from foreign governments and international organisations, and recovery of loans previously granted by the central government, small savings schemes (Post office savings accounts), Provident Funds and net receipts obtained from the sale of shares in PSUs (disinvestment).

Q23. Which of the following is considered as a good indicator of economic growth?

(A) Steady increase in loan
(B) Steady increase in population
(C) Steady increase in the GDP
(D) Steady increase in international trade

Answer: (C) Steady increase in the GDP

Explanation: Steady increase in the GDP. Economic growth means the increase in real national income of a country. Indicators of Economic Growth: Industrial Production, Real Gross Domestic Product, Per-Capita Income, Health, Education etc. GDP calculated at some constant set of prices is called Real GDP. GDP that takes into account the costs in terms of environmental pollution and exploitation of natural resources is called Green GDP. GDP deflator = (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) Γ— 100.

Q24. A government budget shows a primary deficit of β‚Ή6,900 crore. The revenue expenditure on interest payment is β‚Ή400 crore. Fiscal deficit is equal to:

(A) β‚Ή6,500 crore
(B) β‚Ή6,900 crore
(C) β‚Ή7,100 crore
(D) β‚Ή7,300 crore

Answer: (D) β‚Ή7,300 crore

Explanation: β‚Ή7,300 crore. Fiscal Deficit = Primary Deficit + Interest Payment = Rs. 6,900 crore + Rs. 400 crore = Rs. 7,300 crore. Fiscal deficit – It is the expenditure of a government that is more than the revenue generated by the government in a given fiscal year. Interest payment – It is the cost of borrowing money. The borrower makes these payments in addition to paying back the principal on a loan.

Q25. In which type of tax is the marginal tax rate higher than the average tax rate?

(A) Proportional
(B) Regressive
(C) Progressive
(D) Digressive

Answer: (C) Progressive

Explanation: Progressive tax: The tax liability increases with individual or entity income. Under this system, lowest income people are generally exempted while highest income people pay highest taxes. Proportional Tax – A flat tax is levied regardless of income of wealth. Example : Corporation tax. Regressive Tax – The tax rate diminishes as the taxable amount increases. Digressive tax – A mixture of proportional and progressive tax systems.

Q26. Recoveries of loans and advances, borrowings, are an example of __

(A) non-tax receipts
(B) capital receipts
(C) revenue receipts
(D) tax receipts

Answer: (B) capital receipts

Explanation: capital receipts: Those receipts which either create liabilities or reduce the asset value of the government. Revenue receipts: Receipts that neither reduce the assets of the organisation nor create any liability on the government. They are termed as non-redeemable. Non-tax receipts: The recurring income earned by the government from sources other than taxes. Tax receipts: The total receipts from taxes or other government duties.

Q27. Expenditure of the government on health facilities, education and fixed-asset acquisition is termed as __ .

(A) revenue expenditure
(B) non-plan revenue expenditure
(C) capital expenditure
(D) plan expenditure

Answer: (C) capital expenditure

Explanation: Capital expenditure: It involves the spending of government funds on the acquisition of assets that have long-term value and contribute to the overall development of the country. Example – Construction of school and Buildings. Revenue expenditure: It refers to the government’s spending on day-to-day operational costs and current expenses such as salaries, wages, interest payments, and subsidies.

Q28. Which of the following is NOT included in inventory investment when calculating national income ?

(A) Change in sales during the year
(B) Change in stock of semi-finished goods
(C) Change in stock of raw material
(D) Change in stock of finished goods

Answer: (A) Change in sales during the year

Explanation: Change in sales during the year. The stock of unsold finished goods, or semi-finished goods,or raw materials which a firm carries from one year to the next is called inventory. Inventories are treated as capital. Its Addition to the stock of capital of a firm is known as investment.

Q29. Which of the following is a source of tax revenue ?

(A) Profits
(B) Customs
(C) Grants
(D) Penalties

Answer: (B) Customs

Explanation: Customs. Tax revenue: Funds collected from taxes on income and profits. Non tax revenue : Recurring income earned by the government other than taxes (interest receipts, profits and dividends).

Q30. Calculate the GDP at factor cost given in the following data. GDP at market price = 600 crores Consumption of fixed capital = 100 crores Indirect taxes = 200 crores Subsidies = 50 crores

(A) 850 crores
(B) 950 crores
(C) 450 crores
(D) 350 crores

Answer: (C) 450 crores

Explanation: 450 crores. Given, GDP at market price = 600 crores Consumption of fixed capital = 100 crores Indirect taxes = 200 crores Subsidies = 50 crores GDP at factor cost = GDP at market price + Subsidies – Indirect Tax. GDP at factor cost = 600 + 50 – 200 GDP at factor cost = 450

Q31. Assessment of the country’s GDP growth, external balance and fiscal balance are presented in which part of the budget document?

(A) Macroeconomic Framework Statement
(B) Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
(C) Appropriation bill
(D) Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement

Answer: (A) Macroeconomic Framework Statement

Explanation: The Macro-Economic Framework Statement, was presented to Parliament as per the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. The FRBM instructs the government to make an assessment of the growth prospects of the economy with specific underlying assumptions.

Q32. Which of the following is used to measure the total output of goods and services in an economy including depreciation during a specific period within a country ?

(A) Net Domestic Product (NDP)
(B) Gross National Product (GNP)
(C) Net National Product (NNP)
(D) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

Answer: (D) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

Explanation: Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Net Domestic Product (NDP) – Measures the total value of all goods and services produced in a country, adjusted for the depreciation of physical capital. Formula : NDP = GDP – Depreciation. Gross national product (GNP) – Gross national product (GNP) refers to the total value of all the goods and services produced by the residents and businesses of a country, irrespective of the location of production. Formula : GNP = GDP + NR (Net income inflow from assets abroad or Net Income Receipts) – NP (Net payment outflow to foreign assets). Net national product (NNP) – Net national product refers to gross national product minus depreciation. Formula : NNP = GNP – Depreciation.

Q33. Which of the following is an example of capital receipt in the government budget?

(A) Sale of government bonds
(B) Income from government-owned enterprises
(C) Tax revenue collected from citizens
(D) Grants received from foreign countries

Answer: (A) Sale of government bonds

Explanation: Sale of government bonds. Capital Receipts are loans raised from the public (market loans), borrowings from the Reserve Bank and other parties through the sale of Treasury bills, loans received from foreign bodies and governments, and recoveries of loans granted by the Central government. Capital Receipts are long term receipts.

Q34. What is a budget deficit?

(A) The excess of government revenue over expenditure
(B) The amount of money allocated for defence spending
(C) The amount of money allocated for social welfare programmes
(D) The excess of government expenditure over revenue

Answer: (D) The excess of government expenditure over revenue

Explanation: Budget Deficit – When a government spends more than it collects by way of revenue, it incurs a budget deficit. Types of Deficits : Revenue Deficit = Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts. Fiscal deficit = Total expenditures – Total receipts excluding borrowings. Primary Deficit = fiscal deficit – interest payments on previous borrowings.

Q35. Which of the following is an example of a non-debt capital receipt in the government budget ?

(A) Sale of government-owned land
(B) Loans from international financial institutions
(C) Interest payment on government bonds
(D) Tax revenue collected from citizens

Answer: (A) Sale of government-owned land

Explanation: Sale of government-owned land. Non-debt capital receipts: Those money receipts which are received by the government from the sale of old assets. It refers to the incoming cash flows and not treated as liabilities of the government. Example: Recovery of loans and advances, disinvestment, and issue of bonus shares.

Q36. What is personal income ?

(A) The income earned by individuals and households after taxes and other deductions
(B) The total income earned by businesses and corporations in an economy
(C) The income earned by individuals through their own business or self-employment
(D) The total income earned by individuals and households before taxes and other deductions

Answer: (D) The total income earned by individuals and households before taxes and other deductions

Explanation: Personal Income (PI) ≑ National Income – Undistributed profits – Net interest payments made by households – Corporate tax + Transfer payments to the households from the government and firms. Private income is income obtained by private individuals from any source, productive or otherwise, and the retained income of corporations.

Q37. Which of the following methods is used to calculate national income by summing up the total spending on final goods and services in an economy?

(A) Value-added method
(B) Output method
(C) Expenditure method
(D) Income method

Answer: (C) Expenditure method

Explanation: Expenditure method. Output method – Measures the monetary or market value of all the goods and services produced within the borders of the country. GDP (as per output method) = Real GDP (GDP at constant prices) – Taxes + Subsidies. Income Method – It measures the total income earned by the factors of production, that is, labour and capital within the domestic boundaries of a country. GDP (as per income method) = GDP at factor cost + Taxes – Subsidies.

Q38. Which of the following represents disposable income?

(A) The income earned by individuals and households after taxes and other deductions
(B) The total income earned by businesses and corporations in an economy
(C) The income earned by individuals through their own business or self-employment
(D) The total income earned by individuals and households before taxes and other deductions

Answer: (A) The income earned by individuals and households after taxes and other deductions

Explanation: National Disposable Income = Net National Product at market prices + other current transfers from the rest of the world. Private Income = National Income (or NNP at Factor Cost) + Transfer Payments + Interest on Public Debt β€” Social Security β€” Profits and Surpluses of Public Undertakings. Personal Income = Private Income – Undistributed Corporate Profits – Profit Taxes.

Q39. What do you mean by balanced budget ?

(A) Expenditure not equal to revenue
(B) Expenditure equal to revenue
(C) Expenditure more the revenue
(D) Expenditure is less than revenue

Answer: (B) Expenditure equal to revenue

Explanation: Expenditure equal to revenue. Balanced Budget is an ideal approach to achieve a balanced economy and maintain fiscal Discipline. Surplus Budget – when income or revenue exceeds expenditures. Deficit Budget – when government expenses exceed revenue.

Q40. Why are intermediate goods NOT included in the calculation of national income?

(A) Including intermediate goods would result in double counting.
(B) Intermediate goods are not produced within the country’s borders.
(C) Including intermediate goods would decrease the value of national income.
(D) Intermediate goods are not important for measuring economic activity.

Answer: (A) Including intermediate goods would result in double counting.

Explanation: National income – Refers to the total income earned by residents (Including individuals and businesses) of a country irrespective of the location, within or outside the country’s borders over a specific period.

Q41. Which of the following is true about disposable income in relation to personal income?

(A) Disposable income is equal to personal income.
(B) Disposable income is always greater than personal income.
(C) Disposable income is always less than personal income.
(D) Disposable income can be greater or less than personal income, depending on taxes and deductions.

Answer: (C) Disposable income is always less than personal income.

Explanation: Personal income includes payments to individuals (income from wages and salaries, and other income), plus transfer payments from the government, less employee social insurance contributions. Disposable personal income measures the after-tax income of persons and nonprofit corporations.

Q42. Which of the following statements(s) is true?

A) Higher inflation means lower real GDP, ceteris paribus

B) Price Index is 200 if nominal GDP and real GDP are the same

(A) Only B
(B) Both A and B
(C) Only A
(D) Neither A nor B

Answer: (C) Only A

Explanation: Only A. Real GDP : An inflation -adjusted measure that reflects the value of all goods and services produced by an economy in a given year. Real GDP is expressed in base-year prices. Nominal GDP is the GDP given in current prices, without adjustment for inflation. Real GDP = (Nominal GDP / Price Index) x 100. The real GDP will always be less than the nominal GDP value (in case of positive inflation).

Q43. Usually, the reduction in the taxes will have __ multiplier effect compared to an increase in government spending on aggregate demand.

(A) no
(B) smaller
(C) higher
(D) equivalent

Answer: (B) smaller

Explanation: Smaller. Aggregate demand is a term used in macroeconomics to describe the total demand for goods produced domestically, including consumer goods, services, and capital goods. Formula :- AD = C + I + G + (X – M), AD = aggregate demand, C = consumption, I = investment, G = government spending, X = total exports, M = total imports.

Q44. Calculate the NNP (β‚Ήin crore) at market price from the given data

Particulars Value (β‚Ήin crore)

NDP at factor cost – 1,25,250

Net income from abroad – (-) 581

Net indirect taxes – 18,120

(A) 1,25,831
(B) 1,42,789
(C) 1,43,951
(D) 1,24,669

Answer: (B) 1,42,789

Explanation: 1,42,789. NNP (Net National Product) at market price = NDP (Net Domestic Product) at factor cost – Net Income (from abroad) + Net Indirect taxes = 1,25250 – 581 + 18,120 = 1,42,789. Net National Product – The total value of finished goods and services produced by a country’s citizens overseas and domestically, minus depreciation. Factor cost – The total cost of all the factors of production in manufacturing a good.

Q45. Which of the following is a correct expression?

(A) Depreciation = Net investment – Gross investment
(B) Gross investment = Net investment – Depreciation
(C) Net investment = Gross investment – Depreciation
(D) Net investment Gross investment + Depreciation

Answer: (C) Net investment = Gross investment – Depreciation

Explanation: Net Investment = Gross Investment – Depreciation. Gross investment – The total expenditure or investment that is made by a company to acquire capital goods. Net Investment – The total amount of money that a company spends on capital assets, minus the cost of the depreciation of those assets.

Q46. NDP at FC plus net factor income from abroad is equal to _ .

(A) NNP at MP
(B) GNP at MP
(C) GDP at FC
(D) NNP at FC

Answer: (D) NNP at FC

Explanation: NNP at FC. Net Domestic Product (NDP) at factor cost (FC) is the income earned by the factors in the form of wages, profits, rent, interest, etc., within the domestic territory of a country. NDP at FC = NDP at Market Price – Indirect Cases + Subsidies. Net National Product (NNP) at market price βˆ’ Net factor income from overseas = Net domestic product at market price. Gross National Product (GNP) at market price is the market value of all final goods and services produced in a country’s domestic territory by ordinary citizens during an accounting year, including net factor income from abroad.

Q47. According to David Ricardo, during a high deficit situation taxation and borrowings are _ means of spending.

(A) prudent
(B) differentiated
(C) equivalent
(D) subsidised

Answer: (C) equivalent

Explanation: Equivalent. Ricardian equivalence is an economic theory that says that financing government spending out of current taxes or future taxes (and current deficits) will have equivalent effects on the overall economy. He developed the comparative advantage theory, Labor theory of value and theory of rents.

Q48. Which of the following is an objective of the Government Budget?

A) GDP Growth

B) Reallocation of Resources

C) Balanced Regional Growth

(A) Only A
(B) All – A, B and C
(C) Only A and C
(D) Only B

Answer: (B) All – A, B and C

Explanation: All – A, B and C. Government budget: Country’s document or yearly financial statement that shows estimated revenue and expenditure of every item during the course of that year. It is mentioned in Article 112 of the Indian Constitution. Types of Budget: Balanced Budget (Revenue = Expenditure), Surplus Budget (Revenue > Expenditure) and Deficit Budget (Revenue < Expenditure).

Q49. Identify the true statement.

(A) If real GDP is 240 and price index is 120, nominal GDP is 200.
(B) If real GDP is 500 and price index is 200, nominal GDP is 250.
(C) If real GDP is 500 and price index is 200, nominal GDP is 700.
(D) If real GDP is 240 and price index is 120, nominal GDP is 288.

Answer: (D) If real GDP is 240 and price index is 120, nominal GDP is 288.

Explanation: Real GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is an inflation-adjusted measure that reflects the value of all goods and services produced by an economy in a given year. Nominal GDP – It is given in current prices, without adjustment for inflation. Nominal GDP = Real GDP Γ— π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’ 𝐼𝑛𝑑𝑒π‘₯ 100 = 240 Γ— 120_100 = 288.

Q50. Match the items is List I with those in List II.

Measure of National Income Formula

Measure of National Income Formula
i. GNP a. GNP – Depreciation
ii. NNP b. C + I + G + Net exports
iii. GDP c. GDP – Depreciation
iv. NDP d. GDP + Net factor income from abroad

(A) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(B) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(C) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
(D) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a

Answer: (C) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

Explanation: Gross domestic product (GDP) – The market value of all the final goods and services produced in a specific time period within the geographical boundaries of a nation. GDP = consumption + investment + (government spending) + (exports – imports), or, GDP = C + I + G + (X – M).

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