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General Studies
Q1. Which is the most widely accepted model to explain the formation and evaluation of the solar system?
(A) Cloud hypothesis
(B) Gas hypothesis
(C) Nebular hypothesis
(D) Solar hypothesis
Answer: (C) Nebular hypothesis
Explanation: Nebular hypothesis – The planets were formed out of a cloud of material associated with a youthful sun, which was slowly rotating. The theory was developed by Immanuel Kant. But Mathematician Laplace revised it in 1796. Other Hypothesis: Big Bang Theory – Propounded by George Lamaitre related to the origin of the universe .
Q2. Terrestrial planets are composed of______.
(A) metals and air
(B) rocks and metals
(C) metals and gas
(D) rocks and gas
Answer: (B) rocks and metals
Explanation: Rocks and metals. Terrestrial Planets – Mercury, Venus (Earth’s sister planet), Earth and Mars. They are categorised into the following: Silicate Planets, Iron Planets, Coreless Planets, Carbon (diamond) Planets. Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus and Neptune are called Jovian Planets because of their large size (Jovian is named after Jupiter) and their hydrogen content.
Q3. Which trend is found about the distance between the galaxies?
(A) Unpredictable
(B) Decreasing
(C) Constant
(D) Increasing
Answer: (D) Increasing
Explanation: Increasing. In 1929, Edwin Hubble announced that almost all galaxies appeared to be moving away from us. He found that the universe was expanding – with all of the galaxies moving away from each other. This phenomenon was observed as a redshift of a galaxy’s spectrum.
Q4. On which planet has a rotating oval of clouds, twice as wide as Earth, called the ‘Great Red Spot’ been observed for more than 300 years ?
(A) Jupiter
(B) Mercury
(C) Neptune
(D) Venus
Answer: (A) Jupiter
Explanation: Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system. It is made mostly of hydrogen and helium. Number of Moons – 95. Neptune – It is the only planet in our solar system not visible to the naked eye. It has 14 Moons.
Q5. Which scientist thought of the concept of the steady state of the universe?
(A) Harold Jeffrey
(B) Edwin Hubble
(C) Fred Hoyle
(D) Pierre – Laplace
Answer: (C) Fred Hoyle
Explanation: Fred Hoyle. Steady-State Theory : It is a theoretical model in which the Universe is constantly expanding but with a fixed average density. The theory was put forward by three scientists (1948) : Sir Hermann Bondi, Thomas Gold, and Sir Fred Hoyle.
Q6. From the given alternatives, identify the dwarf planet.
(A) Pluto
(B) Mercury
(C) Neptune
(D) Mars
Answer: (A) Pluto
Explanation: Pluto. The five dwarf planets are Ceres, Pluto, Makemake, Haumea, and Eris. A dwarf planet is a celestial body that is in orbit around the Sun and has enough mass to be roughly round in shape.
Q7. Which among the following planets is also known as “morning star”?
(A) Jupiter
(B) Neptune
(C) Venus
(D) Earth
Answer: (C) Venus
Explanation: Venus – The second planet closest to the sun. It is also called Earth’s twin sister because it is similar in size and density as of the Earth. It is also known as Morning and Evening Star. It rotates from east to west i.e. in clockwise direction. It does not have its own natural satellite.
Q8. Cosmic snowballs of frozen gases, rock and dust that orbit the Sun are known as_______.
(A) Meteors
(B) Star
(C) Meteorites
(D) Comets
Answer: (D) Comets
Explanation: Comets. Meteors are bits of rock and ice that are ejected from comets as they move in their orbits about the Sun. Meteorite – Asteroids after the collision are known as a meteorite. usually originate from the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
Q9. Which among the following is the coldest planet in the solar system?
(A) Mars
(B) Neptune
(C) Saturn
(D) Uranus
Answer: (D) Uranus
Explanation: Uranus. Neptune is the second coldest planet. Venus is the hottest planet of all eight planets.
Q10. The Kuiper Belt is a ring of icy rocks & dust bodies just outside the orbit of___.
(A) Saturn
(B) Venus
(C) Neptune
(D) Jupiter
Answer: (C) Neptune
Explanation: Neptune – Farthest-known planet from the Sun. Rotation on its axis – 16 hours. Revolution – 165 Earth years. Size – 17 times the mass of Earth. Moons – 14. Natural satellite – Triton (largest moon). Only a planet which is invisible to the naked eye.
Q11. The moon moves around the earth in about _ days.
(A) 21
(B) 27
(C) 23
(D) 25
Answer: (B) 27
Explanation: 27. Moon is the only natural satellite of planet Earth. It takes 27 days, 7 hours and 43 minutes to complete one revolution around the Earth. Earth’s Moon is the fifth largest moon in the solar system (Largest – Ganymede of Jupiter). Distance – 384,400 kilometers from Earth.
Q12. Minal wrote an essay on the largest moon of Saturn. Which among the following moons is it?
(A) Atlas
(B) Titan
(C) Carme
(D) Europa
Answer: (B) Titan
Explanation: Titan – The second-largest moon in our solar system. Ganymede (Jupiter’s moon ) is the largest moon in the solar system. Atlas – It is a satellite of Saturn which was discovered by Richard Terrile. Carme – It is one of the moons of Jupiter which was discovered by Seth Barnes Nicholson. Europa – It is the moon of Jupiter.
Q13. What is the radius of the earth?
(A) 6371 km
(B) 7456 km
(C) 5619 km
(D) 4728 km
Answer: (A) 6371 km
Explanation: 6371 km. Earth Distance from the Sun (150 million km), Surface area: 510.1 million km², Land area: 149 million km², Gravity: 9.8 m/s².
Q14. Which of the following constellations is also called the hunter?
(A) Cassiopeia
(B) Leo Major
(C) Ursa Major
(D) Orion
Answer: (D) Orion
Explanation: Orion is located on the celestial equator and can be seen throughout the world. It is named after the hunter in Greek. Ursa Major or Great Bear: A constellation in the northern sky. The constellation Leo : Seen in the northern hemisphere in the spring. Cassiopeia : A large constellation located in the northern sky, named after Cassiopeia, the vain and boastful queen in greek. There are 88 constellations.
Q15. Which among the following is another word for universe?
(A) Big Crunch
(B) Astronomy
(C) Cosmos
(D) Supernova
Answer: (C) Cosmos
Explanation: Cosmos (Greek word) meaning both “order” and “world”.
Q16. Each orbit of the International Space Station (ISS) takes _____minutes .
(A) 80 – 82
(B) 85 – 87
(C) 83 – 86
(D) 90 – 93
Answer: (D) 90 – 93
Explanation: 90-93. In 24 hours, the space station makes 16 orbits of Earth, traveling through 16 sunrises and sunsets.
Q17. In approximately how much time does Mars complete one spin on its axis?
(A) 16 hours
(B) 8 hours
(C) 1day
(D) 1 day 18 hours
Answer: (C) 1day
Explanation: 1 day. Rotation time of planets (Approx.): Earth (1 day – 23 hours 56 min), Jupiter (9 hours 56 minutes), Saturn (10 hours 40 minutes), Uranus (17 hours 14 minutes) and Neptune (16 hours).
Q18. Which among the following is not a type of solar eclipse?
(A) Annular
(B) Partial
(C) Penumbral
(D) Total
Answer: (C) Penumbral
Explanation: Penumbral (Lunar eclipse). A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between Earth and the Sun. Types of solar eclipse: Total (Completely blocking the face of the Sun), Hybrid (the Moon is farther away from Earth, it appears smaller than the Sun and does not completely cover the Sun) and Annular (when Sun is at or near its farthest point from Earth).
Q19. The distance of the Sun from the Earth is about __ light minutes.
(A) 6
(B) 4.3
(C) 12
(D) 8
Answer: (D) 8
Explanation: 8. Interstellar distance: Distance between any two celestial bodies; measured in astronomical units (AU). Moon: 1.3 light-seconds away from the Earth. Proxima Centauri: 4.2 light-years from Sun. Light – year is the distance light travels in one year. 1 Light year = 63241 AU (approx).
Q20. The asteroid belt lies between which two planets ?
(A) Jupiter and Saturn
(B) Mars and Jupiter
(C) Saturn and Uranus
(D) Mercury and Venus
Answer: (B) Mars and Jupiter
Explanation: Mars and Jupiter. Asteroid Belt separates the inner and outer planets. Jupiter and Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are the Outer planets (Last four from the Sun) and also known as Jovian Planets. The first four planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) are known as Inner or Terrestrial planets.
Q21. In early 1610, who discovered with his newly invented telescope that Jupiter has four moons?
(A) Simon Marius
(B) Tycho Brahe
(C) Galileo Galilei
(D) Johannes Kepler
Answer: (C) Galileo Galilei
Explanation: Galileo Galilei. He was an Italian astronomer and scientist. He described the rings of Saturn, the phases of Venus, sunsets, and the bumpy lunar surface. The four moons he discovered were: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.
Q22. Who was the first to accurately describe the rings of Saturn as a disc around the planet in 1655 ?
(A) Christiaan Huygens
(B) Galileo Galilei
(C) Hideki Yukawa
(D) Giovanni Cassini
Answer: (A) Christiaan Huygens
Explanation: Christiaan Huygens. His other inventions: pendulum clock, Centrifugal governors and magic lantern.
Q23. The moon completes __ rotation on its axis as it completes one revolution around the Earth.
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: (B) 1
Explanation: 1. The Moon is Earth’s only natural satellite circling the planet at an average distance of 384,400 kilometers. The Moon’s presence helps stabilize our planet and moderate our climate. A single orbit of our planet takes the Moon 27.3 Earth days – The same amount of time it takes for the satellite to also rotate once on its axis. Huygens is the Moon’s tallest mountain.
Q24. Which of the following is a part of celestial objects?
(A) Only I and III
(B) Only I and II
(C) I, II and III
(D) Only II and III
Answer: (C) I, II and III
Explanation: I, II and III. Celestial bodies (heavenly bodies) include: Planets, Stars, Satellites, Comets, Asteroids, Meteors and Meteorites, Galaxies. Halley’s Comet (1P/Halley) is a short-period comet visible from Earth every 75–79 years.
Q25. Which of the following statements regarding the moon is correct?
I. The size of the illuminated part of the moon visible from the Earth increases each day after the new moon day.
II. After the full moon day, the sunlit part of the moon visible from the Earth decreases in size every day.
(A) Both I and II
(B) Only I
(C) Neither I nor II
(D) Only II
Answer: (A) Both I and II
Explanation: Both I and II. When there are two full moons within a month, the second full moon is called a Blue Moon, When a full moon occurs at its perigee (the moon is closest to the earth) it is called a Supermoon.
Q26. Which of the following dwarf planets lies in the main asteroid belt ?
(A) Eris
(B) Makemake
(C) Ceres
(D) Haumea
Answer: (C) Ceres
Explanation: Ceres is a dwarf planet in the asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. Eris is the most massive and one of the largest known dwarf planets in the Solar System. Haumea is a dwarf planet located beyond Neptune’s orbit.
Q27. The __ radiation belts are giant swaths of magnetically trapped highly energetic charged particles that surround Earth.
(A) Van Allen
(B) Aurora
(C) Kuiper
(D) Chinook
Answer: (A) Van Allen
Explanation: Van Allen. An aurora is a natural phenomenon which is characterized by a display of a natural-coloured (green, red, yellow or white) light in the sky. Kuiper belt, flat ring of icy small bodies that revolve around the Sun beyond the orbit of the planet Neptune.
Q28. Which of the following celestial bodies has a natural satellite named ‘Charon’?
(A) Haumea
(B) Pluto
(C) Mars
(D) Saturn
Answer: (B) Pluto
Explanation: Pluto. Charon is known as Pluto. It is the largest of the five known natural satellites of the dwarf planet Pluto.
Q29. Which of the following is the windiest planet in the solar system?
(A) Neptune
(B) Uranus
(C) Saturn
(D) Mars
Answer: (A) Neptune
Explanation: Neptune is the eighth and farthest-known Solar planet from the Sun. It is 17 times the mass of Earth. Neptune is dark, cold, and very windy.
Q30. In which of the following periods is the meteor shower named Quadrantids generally visible from Earth?
(A) August/September
(B) October/November
(C) May/June
(D) December/January
Answer: (D) December/January
Explanation: December/January. The meteor shower named Quadrantids is generally visible from Earth. The Quadrantids can produce over 100 meteors per hour in a moonless sky.
Q31. In which of the following months may the meteor shower named Lyrids be seen from Earth?
(A) April
(B) February
(C) June
(D) August
Answer: (A) April
Explanation: April. The radiant point for the Lyrid meteor shower is near the constellation Lyra, which has the bright star Vega in the east.
Q32. IC 1101 is a __.
(A) asteroid
(B) galaxy
(C) supernova
(D) satellite
Answer: (B) galaxy
Explanation: galaxy. IC 1101 is a supergiant elliptical galaxy at the center of the Abell 2029 galaxy cluster and is one of the largest known galaxies.
Q33. The approximate period between two consecutive new moons is _ days.
(A) 15.5
(B) 28.5
(C) 29.5
(D) 15
Answer: (C) 29.5
Explanation: 29.5 days. The time interval between a full moon and the next repetition of the same phase, a synodic month, averages about 29.53 days.
Q34. What is the radius of the moon?
(A) 1.78 106 m
(B) 1.79 106m
(C) 1.74 105 m
(D) 1.74 106m
Answer: (D) 1.74 106m
Explanation: 1.74 × 106 m. The distance between the moon and the earth is 384,400 km.
Q35. During the phenomenon of aphelion, the approximate distance between the earth and the sun is:
(A) 137 million km
(B) 152 million km
(C) 147 million km
(D) 142 million km
Answer: (B) 152 million km
Explanation: 152 million km. Aphelion is the point of the Earth’s orbit that is farthest away from the Sun. Perihelion is the point of the Earth’s orbit that is nearest to the Sun.
Q36. The _ is responsible for Earth’s magnetic field.
(A) inner core
(B) mantle
(C) outer core
(D) crust
Answer: (C) outer core
Explanation: outer core. On Earth, flowing liquid metal in the outer core of the planet generates electric currents. The rotation of Earth on its axis causes these electric currents to form a magnetic field which extends around the planet.
Q37. The process that moves, elevates or builds up portions of the earth’s crust is called:
(A) denudation
(B) volcanism
(C) weathering
(D) diastrophism
Answer: (D) diastrophism
Explanation: ) Diastrophism. Denudation is the process of wearing away the Earth’s surface by weathering and erosion. Volcanism is the process of molten rock (magma) erupting onto the Earth’s surface.
Q38. The bodies glowing in the night sky are known as __.
(A) Celestial bodies
(B) Asteroids
(C) Planetarium
(D) Meteorite
Answer: (A) Celestial bodies
Explanation: Celestial bodies are objects in space, such as stars, planets, moons, and galaxies.
Q39. Lucifer is another name for the planet______.
(A) Jupiter
(B) Mars
(C) Venus
(D) Saturn
Answer: (C) Venus
Explanation: Venus. Lucifer means “Lightbringer”. Other Planet Nickname – Ringed Planet (Saturn), Red Planet (Mars), Giant Planet (Jupiter).
Q40. Planetary scientists call the thin gaseous envelope around the Moon as the __.
(A) lunar exosphere
(B) lunar stratosphere
(C) lunar thermosphere
(D) lunar endosphere
Answer: (A) lunar exosphere
Explanation: lunar exosphere bounded by the emptiness of space and the Moon’s surface , is an atmosphere so thin that atoms really collide. Chandrayaan-2 observed Argon-40 in the lunar exosphere.
Q41. How many degrees does the Earth rotate about its own axis in one hour?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 15
Answer: (D) 15
Explanation: 15. On its axis, the earth rotates 360 degrees every 24 hours.
Q42. Which of the following sets of statements are correct about Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)?
a. The ITCZ is a broad trough of low pressure in equatorial latitudes.
b. This is where the northeast and the southeast trade winds converge.
c. The ITCZ is the equatorial trough normally positioned about 5°N of the equator and remains there throughout the year.
d. The ITCZ moves over to the plane of Ganga in Summer.
(A) Only a and c
(B) a, b and c
(C) Only b and c
(D) a, b and d
Answer: (D) a, b and d
Explanation: a, b and d. Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) – The region that circles the Earth, near the equator, where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres come together. Seasonal shifts in the location of the ITCZ drastically affects rainfall in many equatorial nations, resulting in the wet and dry seasons of the tropics rather than the cold and warm seasons of higher latitudes.
Q43. During October-November, the apparent movement of the sun is towards the __.
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) North-West
Answer: (C) South
Explanation: South. The position of the rising sun keeps on moving towards the south in the period from 21st June to 22nd December. This period is called Dakshinayan. From 22nd December to 21st June, the sun keeps on moving towards the north. This period is called Uttarayan.
Q44. The southern part of India lies in the _ belt.
(A) rain
(B) temperate
(C) polar
(D) warm
Answer: (D) warm
Explanation: Warm – The region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is characterized by hot temperatures, high humidity, and abundant rainfall.
Q45. Tropic of Cancer (23°30′ N) passes through__________ state of India.
(A) Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Kerala
Answer: (C) Chhattisgarh
Explanation: Chhattisgarh. The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India – Gujarat (Jasdan), Rajasthan (Kalinjarh), Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur), Chhattisgarh (Sonhat), Jharkhand (Lohardaga), West Bengal (Krishnanagar), Tripura (Udaipur) and Mizoram (Champhai).
Q46. On which of the following two dates does the equinox fall?
(A) 21 March and 23 September
(B) 21 June and 23 September
(C) 21 March and 21 June
(D) 23 September and 22 December
Answer: (A) 21 March and 23 September
Explanation: 21 March and 23 September. Equinox is the situation when the equator receives the vertical rays of the Sun and day and night are equal. Spring equinox – 21st March, Autumn equinox – 23 September. 21st June (winter solstice in Southern Hemisphere, Summer solstice in Northern hemisphere) – The rays of the sun fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. 22 December (Summer solstice in Southern hemisphere, winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere) – The rays of the sun fall directly on the Tropic of Capricorn.
Q47. From the north most to south most point of India, what is the extent of India?
(A) 4109 km
(B) 2914 km
(C) 3214 km
(D) 3785 km
Answer: (C) 3214 km
Explanation: 3214 km. Extent of India: East to west (2,933 km), land frontier (15,200 km), coastline (7,516.6 km). The westernmost point (Ghuar Moti in Kutch). The easternmost point (Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh). Indira Col northernmost point). Indira Point (Great Nicobar Island, Andaman sea) is the Southernmost point of India while Kanyakumari is the southernmost point of the Indian Mainland.
Q48. What is the zone between the arctic circle and north pole called?
(A) Torrid zone
(B) Frigid zone
(C) North temperate zone
(D) South temperate zone
Answer: (B) Frigid zone
Explanation: Frigid zone. The North Frigid Zone, between the North Pole at 90° N and the Arctic Circle at 66°33′48.7″ N, covers 4.12% of Earth’s surface.
Q49. The 90 degree East Meridian does NOT pass through:
(A) Sikkim
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Bhutan
(D) Bangladesh
Answer: (A) Sikkim
Explanation: Sikkim. The 90 degree East Meridian passes through Assam and Meghalaya in India and it crosses Bhutan and Bangladesh.
Q50. 1° latitude is equal to approximately __ km.
(A) 111
(B) 145
(C) 133
(D) 122
Answer: (A) 111
Explanation: 111 km. This distance decreases marginally as one travels to poles and increases marginally as one goes towards the equator.