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General Studies
Q1. Which of the following is the Fundamental Law of any country which sets out the framework and the principal functions of various organs of the government ?
(A) Customs
(B) International Law
(C) Constitution
(D) Ordinance
Answer: (C) Constitution
Explanation: Constitution is a legal, political, and social instrument. Legally, it enshrines human rights and creates a predictable legal landscape. Politically, it establishes, distributes and limits governmental power. Socially, it reflects a shared identity or civic vision of the state. Indian constitution (Adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26th January 1950) is the world’s longest written constitution. 26th November is celebrated every year as Samvidhan Divas (Law Day or Constitution Day) in India.
Q2. Who among the following personalities was appointed as the legal advisor of the Constituent Assembly that drafted the document of the Constitution?
(A) HVR Iyengar
(B) SN Mukherjee
(C) BR Ambedkar
(D) BN Rau
Answer: (D) BN Rau
Explanation: BN Rau. On 9 December 1946, the Constituent Assembly of India met for the first time. Temporary President – Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha. President of the Assembly – Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Vice-President of the Assembly – H C Mukherjee. The Constituent Assembly had a total of 389 members.
Q3. Which of the following words was NOT a part of the original Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Democratic
(B) Republic
(C) Secular
(D) Sovereign
Answer: (C) Secular
Explanation: Secular – All religions are treated equally by the government. It was added in the Preamble by 42nd Amendment, 1976. Democratic : the government is elected by the people. Republic : the head of state is an elected president. Sovereign : independent and not subject to the control of any other country.
Q4. Which of the following noble ideals is mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Liberty of expression, civil, political, worship and belief
(B) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
(C) Liberty of belief, fiscal, personal, faith and worship
(D) Liberty of opportunity, economic, social, faith and expression
Answer: (B) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
Explanation: Preamble basically gives ideas – Source of the Constitution, Nature of Indian State, Statement of its objectives, Date of its adoption. Preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic. The Objective Resolution of the Indian Constitution contained the fundamental propositions of the constitution and laid down the political ideas, which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947.
Q5. Which of the following is NOT a political philosophy of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Sensitive for the historically disadvantaged groups
(B) Open to community values
(C) Sensitive to the needs of religious and linguistic minorities
(D) Non-committal to building a common national identity
Answer: (D) Non-committal to building a common national identity
Explanation: The philosophy of the Indian Constitution is based on the principles of secularism, democracy, social justice, fundamental rights, and directive principles of state policy. The philosophical postulates of the Constitution of India are based on – Objective Resolution of Pandit Nehru which was moved in the first session of the constituent assembly on 13 Dec 1946.
Q6. Which of the following words is NOT mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Secular
(B) Republic
(C) Federalism
(D) Socialist
Answer: (C) Federalism
Explanation: Federalism – A system of government in which powers have been divided between the centre and its constituent parts such as states or provinces. Republic – The head of the state is elected by the people of the country. Socialist – A democratic socialism where both public and private sectors function together towards socialist goals.
Q7. The original Constitution of India was hand written in English by:
(A) HVR Iyenge
(B) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada
(C) Vasant Krishan Vaidya
(D) SN Mukherjee
Answer: (B) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada
Explanation: Prem Behari Narayan Raizada – The calligrapher of the Indian Constitution. The original constitution was handwritten by him in a flowing italic style.
Q8. Who among the following personalities was the chief draftsman of the constituent assembly that drafted the document of the Constitution?
(A) KM Munshi
(B) Vasant Krishan Vaidya
(C) HVR Iyenger
(D) SN Mukherjee
Answer: (D) SN Mukherjee
Explanation: SN Mukherjee. The drafting committee was formed under the chairmanship of Dr B R Ambedkar by the Constituent Assembly on 29th August 1947. The other six members of the committee were K.M. Munshi, Muhammed Sadullah, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar, Devi Prasad Khaitan and BL Mitter.
Q9. Which of the following is an incorrect statement in regard to the meaning of ‘Union of States’ in the Indian context?
(A) Country was divided into different states for administrative convenience.
(B) The Indian federation was the result of an agreement by sovereign units to join it.
(C) Enumerates the power of the centre and states through various lists.
(D) Federation not being the result of agreement, no state has a right to secede from it.
Answer: (B) The Indian federation was the result of an agreement by sovereign units to join it.
Explanation: Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Article 1(1) of the Constitution of India says that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. In India, the component units have no freedom to secede from the federation. Dr. B R Ambedkar called India as an indestructible Union of destructible states (the Central Government can change the name, boundaries of the states without their permission).
Q10. Who among the following wrote in calligraphic style the Hindi version of the original Indian Constitution?
(A) SN Mukherjee
(B) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
(C) Vasant Krishan Vaidya
(D) Nand Lal Bose
Answer: (C) Vasant Krishan Vaidya
Explanation: Vasant Krishan Vaidya. The original version of the constitution was beautified and decorated by artists from Shantiniketan including Nand Lal Bose and Beohar Rammanohar Sinha.
Q11. The structural part of the Indian Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Act of _.
(A) 1909
(B) 1935
(C) 1947
(D) 1919
Answer: (B) 1935
Explanation: 1935. Government of India Act, 1935 provides the establishment of an All India federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. It divided the powers between the centre and units in terms of three lists- Federal list, provincial list and the concurrent list. Jawaharlal Nehru called it a “machine with strong brakes but no engine”. He also called it a “Charter of Slavery”.
Q12. The constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in the year _.
(A) 1947
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1948
Answer: (B) 1949
Explanation: 1949. The Constitution was passed and adopted by the assembly on 26th November 1949, but it came into force on 26th January 1950. It took 2 years, 11 months, 18 days to frame the Constitution of India. The original text of the constitution had 395 Articles, 22 parts and 8 schedules. In 1934, the Indian National Congress made the demand for a Constituent Assembly. M N Roy first proposed the idea of a constituent assembly in 1934.
Q13. Who moved the Objective Resolution that was later adapted as the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) JB Kripalani
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) BR Ambedkar
Answer: (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the ‘Objective Resolution’ on 13 December 1946. This resolution enshrined the aspirations and values of the constitution-makers. Under this, the people of India were guaranteed social, economic and political justice, equality and fundamental freedoms. This resolution was unanimously adopted on 22 January 1947 and the Preamble to the Constitution is based on it.
Q14. The Constitution of India is a sovereign socialist secular democratic republic with a _____________system of government.
(A) unitary
(B) parliamentary
(C) monarchical
(D) presidential
Answer: (B) parliamentary
Explanation: Parliamentary system is a form of government where executives hold the power with the majority support of the legislature. In a presidential system, the head of the government leads an executive that is distinct from the legislature. A monarchy is a form of government in which a person, the monarch, is head of state for life or until abdication. A unitary system is composed of one central government that holds all the power.
Q15. The ceremony that marks the end of Republic Day celebrations is __.
(A) the beating retreat ceremony
(B) the fly-past by the Indian Air Force fighter aircraft
(C) the ‘At Home’ ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhawan
(D) the homage ceremony at National War Memorial
Answer: (A) the beating retreat ceremony
Explanation: Beating retreat ceremony (end of Republic Day). The republic day celebrations are majorly divided into three parts (the Republic Day Parade, the Beating Retreat, and the Award Distributions). Republic Day marks the commencement of the Constitution of India on January 26th, 1950. The opening Ceremony started with laying a wreath at the Amar Jawan Jyoti at India Gate.
Q16. All the _ countries likely to have a Constitution.
(A) communist
(B) democratic
(C) oligarchic
(D) totalitarian
Answer: (B) democratic
Explanation: democratic countries are most likely to have a constitution . All countries that have a constitution are not necessarily democratic. Democratic is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people. A Communist is a classless society with common ownership. Oligarchic – government by few. A Totalitarian government has absolute power with no opposition (single-party dictatorship).
Q17. Which is NOT a unitary feature of the Constitution of India?
(A) Bicameral Legislature
(B) Integrated Judicial System
(C) Single Citizenship
(D) Appointment of the Governor by the President
Answer: (A) Bicameral Legislature
Explanation: Bicameral Legislature (legislative body with two houses). At the central level (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). Other Unitary features of Indian Constitution: Single Constitution for Union and States, Common All-India Services, Inequality of Representation in the Council of States, Centralised Electoral Machinery, Special Powers of Council of State over State List, etc.
Q18. Which of the following is NOT a federal feature of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Dual Government
(B) Division of Powers
(C) All India Services
(D) Written Constitution
Answer: (C) All India Services
Explanation: All India Services. Federal Features of the Indian Constitution – Division of powers, Supremacy of the constitution, Written constitution, Rigid constitution, Independent Judiciary, Bi-cameral Legislature.
Q19. Who among the following described the Indian Constitution as ‘quasi federal’ ?
(A) MV Pylee
(B) Gunnar Myrdal
(C) AV Dicey
(D) KC Wheare
Answer: (D) KC Wheare
Explanation: K.C. Wheare. Different scholars have different opinions on the federal structure of India – ‘bargaining federalism’ by Morris Jones, ‘co-operative federalism’ by Granville Austin, ‘federation with a centralising tendency’ by Ivor Jennings, etc.
Q20. With reference to the Constituent Assembly, which of the following statements is Correct?
(A) The Constituent Assembly ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May1947.
(B) The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Anthem in January 1950.
(C) The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Song in January 1948.
(D) The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Flag in July 1949.
Answer: (B) The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Anthem in January 1950.
Explanation: The National Anthem of India was adopted by the constituent assembly on 24th January 1950. It was first sung on 27 December 1911 in the Kolkata session of INC. The Constituent Assembly ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. On 24 Jan 1950, the Indian Constituent Assembly adopted “Vande Mataram” as a national song. On July 22, 1947, the Constituent Assembly adopted the Independent Indian National Flag.
Q21. How many female members were part of the Constituent Assembly that framed the Constitution of India?
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 15
Answer: (D) 15
Explanation: 15. The Constituent Assembly was formed on 6 December 1946. The idea for a Constituent Assembly was proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy.
Q22. Who was the chairman of the House Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(A) B Pattabhi Sitaramayy
(B) AV Thakkar
(C) JB Kripalani
(D) K.M. Munshi
Answer: (A) B Pattabhi Sitaramayy
Explanation: B Pattabhi Sitaramayya. In 1922, AV Thakkar founded the Bhil Seva Mandal. JB Kripalani was the president of Indian National Congress during Independence. K M Munshi – Founder of Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan (1938), Member of the Constituent Assembly of India, Minister for Agriculture & Food (1952–53)
Q23. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar was the chairman of the __ of the Constituent Assembly of India.
(A) Credential Committee
(B) Union Powers Committee
(C) Order of Business Committee
(D) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee
Answer: (A) Credential Committee
Explanation: Credential Committee. Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru, Order of Business Committee – K.M. Munshi, Fundamental Rights Sub – Committee – J.B. Kripalani.
Q24. The Constituent Assembly was recognised by Section __ of the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
(A) 6(2)
(B) 10(1)
(C) 12(2)
(D) 8(1)
Answer: (D) 8(1)
Explanation: Section 8(1) .
Q25. GV Mavalankar was the Chairman of the __ of the Constituent Assembly of India.
(A) Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas
(B) Committee on the Functions
(C) Order of Business Committee
(D) Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag
Answer: (B) Committee on the Functions
Explanation: (b) Committee on the Functions. GV Mavalankar was the first speaker of Lok Sabha. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas- Vallabhbhai Patel. Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag – Rajendra Prasad.
Q26. When was the Tenth Session of the Constituent Assembly held?
(A) 6 – 17 October 1949
(B) 14 – 31 July 1947
(C) 4 November 1948 – 8 January 1949
(D) 16 May – 16 June 1949
Answer: (A) 6 – 17 October 1949
Explanation: 6-17 October 1949. The Constituent Assembly took almost three years (two years, eleven months and eighteen days) to complete its historic task of drafting the Constitution for Independent India. During this period, it held eleven sessions covering a total of 165 days. First Session : 9-23 December, 1946, Eleventh Session : 14-26 November, 1949.
Q27. Who among the following became a part of the Constituent Assembly from Madras Constituency in 1946?
(A) Ammu Swaminathan
(B) Hansa Jivraj Mehta
(C) Kamla Chaudhry
(D) Begum Aizaz Rasul
Answer: (A) Ammu Swaminathan
Explanation: Ammu Swaminathan. He was involved in the Quit India Movement in 1942. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the president and its vice-president was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee.
Q28. What is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution of India for appointment as Governor of a State?
(A) 25 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 30 years
Answer: (C) 35 years
Explanation: 35 years. Article 153 states that each state will have a Governor. Articles from 153 to 167 in Part VI of the constitution deal with the state executive.
Q29. The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 389, of which __ were representatives of princely states.
(A) 84
(B) 102
(C) 109
(D) 93
Answer: (D) 93
Explanation: 93. The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 389, of which 292 were representatives of the provinces, 93 represented the princely states and 4 were from the chief commissioner provinces of Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British Baluchistan.
Q30. The members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India on __.
(A) 26 November 1948
(B) 24 January 1950
(C) 26 November 1949
(D) 24 January 1952
Answer: (B) 24 January 1950
Explanation: 24 January 1950. On that day, the last meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held and the ‘Constitution of India’ ( with 395 Articles, 8 schedules, 22 parts) was signed and accepted by all.
Q31. In 1946, who among the following was made the interim president of the Indian Constituent Assembly?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sachchidananda Sinha
(C) S Subramaniya Iyer
(D) Sachindra Nath Sanyal
Answer: (B) Sachchidananda Sinha
Explanation: Sachchidananda Sinha. He was from Arrah, Bihar. Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected the permanent president of the Constituent Assembly on December 11 ,1946.
Q32. Who described the preamble of Indian Constitution as the ‘Political horoscope of the Indian Constitution’?
(A) NA Palkhiwala
(B) Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi
(C) Thakurdas Bhargav
(D) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
Answer: (B) Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi
Explanation: Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi
Q33. When was the first Constituent Assembly election held in India?
(A) 1947
(B) 1946
(C) 1949
(D) 1948
Answer: (B) 1946
Explanation: 1946. The Constituent Assembly appointed a total of 13 committees to deal with different tasks of constitution making. Out of these, 8 were major committees and the other were minor committees. The Provincial Constitution Committee was headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Q34. In which year did Motilal Nehru (Chairman) and eight other Congress leaders draft a constitution for India?
(A) 1925
(B) 1950
(C) 1928
(D) 1930
Answer: (C) 1928
Explanation: 1928. The Motilal Nehru Report 1928 was made by a committee headed by Pt. Motilal Nehru. This committee was created when Lord Birkenhead, Secretary of State of India asked the Indian leaders to draft a constitution for the country
Q35. The Directive Principles of State Policy are an adaptation from which of the following Constitutions?
(A) Irish Constitution
(B) UK Constitution
(C) USSR Constitution
(D) Polish Constitution
Answer: (A) Irish Constitution
Explanation: Irish Constitution. Sources of Indian Constitution : Ireland – Method of Election of President, the nomination of members to Rajya Sabha by the President. Russian Constitution – Fundamental Duties. Japanese Constitution – The procedure established by law.
Q36. From which country has the concept of Martial Law, which restricts Fundamental rights, borrowed?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) The UK
(D) The USSR
Answer: (C) The UK
Explanation: The UK. The expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. It refers to the suspension of ordinary law and the government by military tribunals.
Q37. The provision of fundamental duties in the Indian Constitution is inspired by __ .
(A) the constitution of USA
(B) the constitution of France
(C) the constitution of Canada
(D) the constitution of USSR
Answer: (D) the constitution of USSR
Explanation: The constitution of the USSR. Sources of Indian Constitution: United States of America – Fundamental Rights, Preamble.
Q38. The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the ‘Bill of Rights’ of which of the following countries?
(A) The USSR
(B) Japan
(C) Australia
(D) The USA
Answer: (D) The USA
Explanation: The USA. Sources of the Indian Constitution: France – Ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity in the Preamble. Australia – Freedom of Trade and Commerce, Concurrent List. South Africa – Election of Rajya Sabha members, Procedure for amendment in the constitution.
Q39. The provision for the post of Vice-President in the Indian Constitution was taken from _.
(A) France
(B) Ireland
(C) United States of America
(D) Japan
Answer: (C) United States of America
Explanation: United States of America. US Constitution – The position of Vice President, Judicial Review, Independent Judiciary, removal of the High court and Supreme court judges, and fundamental rights.
Q40. In the Indian constitution the concept of ‘equality before law’ is borrowed from the _ constitution.
(A) British
(B) Canadian
(C) US
(D) Irish
Answer: (A) British
Explanation: British. Article 14: Equality before the law. ‘Equality before law’ connotes: the absence of any special privileges in favour of any person, the equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts, and no person is above the law.
Q41. India is a parliamentary democracy based on the Westminster model of _ .
(A) the United States of America
(B) South Africa
(C) France
(D) the United Kingdom
Answer: (D) the United Kingdom
Explanation: The United Kingdom. Countries where the Westminster model is used – Britain, Canada, New Zealand as well as in many parts of the Pacific, Asia and Africa. British – Parliamentary form of government, The idea of single citizenship, The idea of the Rule of law, Writs, Institution of Speaker and his role, Law making procedure, The Political Part of the Indian Constitution, Bicameralism.
Q42. The concept of “Republic” in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the constitution of which of the following countries ?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Australia
(D) Japan
Answer: (B) France
Explanation: France : Concept of Republic, Ideals of Liberty, equality and fraternity. Provisions borrowed from other countries: Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency – Germany.
Q43. The concept of “Amendment of the Constitution” in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the constitution of which of the following countries?
(A) South Africa
(B) Germany
(C) Canada
(D) Australia
Answer: (A) South Africa
Explanation: South Africa. Article 368 of Part XX – “Constitutional Amendment”. Indian Constitution Sources : South Africa – Election of members of Rajya Sabha. Australia – Concurrent List, Provisions of Freedom of Trade and Commerce within the country and between the states, and the joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament.
Q44. Which of the following provisions of the Indian constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of Canada?
(A) Independence of judiciary
(B) Concept of Republic
(C) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme court
(D) Concept of concurrent list
Answer: (C) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme court
Explanation: Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme court. Borrowed Features of Indian Constitution from Canada – Centrifugal form of federalism where the center is stronger than the states, To provide residuary powers to the Centre, Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction, and Appointment of state governors by the Centre.
Q45. Match the following subject matters with their concerned Articles.
A | B |
1. Superintendence, direction | A) Article 329 and control of elections to be Vested in an Election commission |
2. Power of parliament to make | B) Article 324 provision with respect to election to legislature |
3. Bar of interference by | C) Article 327 courts in electoral matters |
(A) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
(B) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
(C) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
(D) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
Answer: (D) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
Explanation: 1-B, 2-C, 3-A. Article 325 – No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex. Article 328 – Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections to such Legislature.
Q46. Which Article deals with the election of the Vice President?
(A) Article 66
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 70
(D) Article 52
Answer: (A) Article 66
Explanation: Article 66. The post of Vice President of India is taken from the US Constitution. Article 64 – The Vice President to be ex officio Chairman of the Council of States. Article 70 – Discharge of President’s functions in other contingencies.
Q47. Which article allows the state to make provisions for the upliftment of certain categories of people like socially and culturally backward classes and Scheduled caste and Scheduled Tribes?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
Answer: (A) Article 15
Explanation: Article 15. Article 17- “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
Q48. Which Article of the Constitution of India mentions that “there shall be a Public Service Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each State” ?
(A) 315 (4)
(B) 315 (1)
(C) 315 (3)
(D) 315 (2)
Answer: (B) 315 (1)
Explanation: Article 315 (1). Article 315 (2) – Two or more States may agree that there shall be one Public Service Commission for that group of States. Article 315 (3) – Any such law as aforesaid may contain such incidental and consequential provisions as may be necessary or desirable for giving effect to the purposes of the law. Article 315 (4) – UPSC can, if requested by a state government, conduct examinations and interviews to select candidates for state government jobs.
Q49. Which of the following articles provides for ‘equal justice and free legal aid’?
(A) Article 43 B
(B) Article 48 A
(C) Article 39 A
(D) Article 43 A
Answer: (C) Article 39 A
Explanation: Article 39 A. Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36-51). Article 50 – Separation of judiciary from executive. Article 43 A – Participation of workers in management of industries. Article 51 – Promotion of international peace and security.
Q50. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions that all executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President?
(A) Article 67
(B) Article 77
(C) Article 81
(D) Article 48
Answer: (B) Article 77
Explanation: Article 77. Other Article of the Constitution: Article 67 – Term of office of Vice President. Article 81 – Composition of the House of the People. Article 48 – The organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry. Article 48A – Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.