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Q1. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides that the Governor appoints the Chief Minister and later, the Chief Minister recommends the appointment of ministers to the Governor?

(A) Article 163
(B) Article 165
(C) Article 164
(D) Article 167

Answer: (C) Article 164

Explanation: Article 164. Other Appointments by Governor: State Election Commissioner (Article 243 K), Vice-Chancellors of the universities in the state (University Grants Commission (UGC) Regulations, 2018), Advocate General for the State (Article 165) etc. Article 163 – Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor of the State.

Q2. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces ?

(A) Article 31
(B) Article 33
(C) Article 37
(D) Article 35

Answer: (B) Article 33

Explanation: Article 33. Fundamental rights are included in Part III (Article 12-35) of the Constitution. It is borrowed from the Constitution of the United States of America. It is described as the Magna Carta of India. Article 35 – Power to make laws to give effect to certain specified fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament and not in the state legislatures.

Q3. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for equal opportunity for all citizens in the matter of employment under the state ?

(A) Article 17
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 16

Answer: (D) Article 16

Explanation: Article 16 – It comes under Right to Equality (Article 14 to 18) in the Part III (fundamental rights) of the Constitution. Article 18 – Abolition of titles.

Q4. As per Article 361 of the Constitution of India, who among the following shall NOT be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office?

(A) Secretary
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Governor

Answer: (D) Governor

Explanation: Governor. Article 361 – The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance.

Q5. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions for disqualification of legislators on the ground of defection?

(A) Schedule-X
(B) Schedule-XI
(C) Schedule-VIII
(D) Schedule-IX

Answer: (A) Schedule-X

Explanation: Schedule-X: Popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act, was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. Schedule-IX (laws that are immune from judicial review) – It was added by the First Amendment Act, 1951.

Q6. Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India ?

(A) Article 74
(B) Article 76
(C) Article 73
(D) Article 75

Answer: (D) Article 75

Explanation: Article 75: Other provision – Council of Ministers (COM) shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister; Total number of COM, including Prime minister shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People; COM shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People; President shall administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy of COM; A Person who is not a member of either House of Parliament, can become Ministers for any period of six consecutive months; The salaries and allowances of Ministers shall be such as Parliament may from time to time by law determine.

Q7. Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution deal with__________.

(A) fundamental duties
(B) fundamental rights
(C) directive principles of state policy
(D) preamble of Indian constitution

Answer: (C) directive principles of state policy

Explanation: directive principles of state policy. Article 38 – State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people. Article 41 – Right to work, education and public assistance in certain cases.

Q8. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that all the authorities— civil and judicial— in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court?

(A) Article 143
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 144
(D) Article 142

Answer: (C) Article 144

Explanation: Article 144. Article 143: Power of President to consult the Supreme Court. Article 142: Enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court and orders as to discovery, etc. Article 141: The law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Q9. Which Article of the Indian Constitution refers to the Rights of Ministers with respect to the State Legislature?

(A) Article 176
(B) Article 177
(C) Article 178
(D) Article 175

Answer: (B) Article 177

Explanation: Article 177. Article 175 – Right of Governor to address and send messages to the House or Houses. Article 176 – Special address by the Governor. Article 178 – The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.

Q10. What is the aim of Article 44 of the Indian Constitution?

(A) To protect every monument or place of artistic or historic interest
(B) To separate judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State
(C) To protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country
(D) To secure for the citizen, a uniform civil code through the territory of India

Answer: (D) To secure for the citizen, a uniform civil code through the territory of India

Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Article 36-51). Article 50 – Separation of judiciary from Executive.

Q11. Article 149 of the Constitution deals with ____.

(A) the qualifications required for the appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(B) the duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(C) the term of office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(D) the appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

Answer: (B) the duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

Explanation: Part V (Chapter V) of the Indian Constitution (Articles 148-151) deals with the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG). Article 148 – Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. Article 150 – Form of Accounts of the Union and the states. Article 151 – Audit Reports.

Q12. Which of the following statements is correct about Article 129 of the Constitution of India?

(A) It provides for the Supreme Court to give advisory opinions to the President.
(B) It provides for the Supreme Court to be a court of original jurisdiction
(C) It provides for the Supreme Court to be a court of record.
(D) It provides for the Supreme Court to be the highest court of appeal.

Answer: (C) It provides for the Supreme Court to be a court of record.

Explanation: Article 143 – Power of the President to consult the Supreme Court. Article 131 – Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Article 132 – Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in certain cases. Article 133 – Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to Civil matters. Article 134 – Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters.

Q13. Articles 29-30 of the Constitution of India deals with ____

(A) Cultural and educational rights
(B) Right to freedom
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to freedom of religion

Answer: (A) Cultural and educational rights

Explanation: Cultural and educational rights. Article (12 – 35) contained in Part III of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights. Right to Equality – Article (14 – 18). Right to Freedom – Article (19 – 22). Right against Exploitation – Article (23 – 24). Right to Freedom of Religion – Article (25 – 28). Right to Constitutional Remedies – Article (32 – 35).

Q14. The __ of the Indian Constitution defines the Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens.

(A) Article 51A
(B) Article 41B
(C) Article 49C
(D) Article 21A

Answer: (A) Article 51A

Explanation: Article 51A – It shall be the duty of every citizen of India, to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem. Article 41 – Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases. Article 49 – Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance. Article 21A – Right to education. Article 43B – Promotion of co-operative societies.

Q15. How many schedules are there in our Constitution as of June 2023?

(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 10

Answer: (C) 12

Explanation: 12 Schedules in Indian Constitution: First – List of States and UT; Second – Emoluments, allowances, and privileges; Third – Oath and affirmation ; Fourth – Seat allocation of the Rajya Sabha; Fifth – Administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes; Sixth – Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram; Seventh – Union list, State list and the concurrent list; Eight – List of recognized languages; Ninth – Land reforms and regulations; Tenth – Anti defection law; Eleventh – Panchayati Raj and Twelfth – Municipalities.

Q16. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the organisation of village panchayat?

(A) Article 38
(B) Article 40
(C) Article 45
(D) Article 36

Answer: (B) Article 40

Explanation: Article 40. Directive Principles of State Policy: Part IV (Articles 36 to51). Article 38 – State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people. Article 45 – Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years. Article 36 – It defines a ‘State’ for Directive Principles to be followed.

Q17. Which Clause of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the ‘right to move freely throughout the territory of India’ ?

(A) Clause (b)
(B) Clause (c)
(C) Clause (d)
(D) Clause (a)

Answer: (C) Clause (d)

Explanation: Clause (d). Article 19 – It guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression. Article 19 (1) of the constitution gave the following right to citizens : (a) Freedom of speech and expression, (b) to assemble peacefully and without arms, (c) to form associations or unions, (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India, (f) omitted, (g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Q18. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for a governor for each state?

(A) Article 173
(B) Article 157
(C) Article 153
(D) Article 156

Answer: (C) Article 153

Explanation: Article 153. Article 156 (1) – The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Article 157 – No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. Article 173 – Qualification for membership of the State Legislature.

Q19. Which Articles of the Constitution of India deal with the Union and its territory ?

(A) Articles 5-11
(B) Articles 1-4
(C) Articles 12-35
(D) Article 36-51

Answer: (B) Articles 1-4

Explanation: Articles 1-4. Article 1- Name and territory of the Union; Article 2 – Admission or establishment of new States; Article 3 – Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States; Article 4 : Laws made under articles 2 and 3 to provide for the amendment of the First and the Fourth Schedules and supplemental, incidental and consequential matters. Articles 5-11 (Citizenship), Articles 12-35(Fundamental Rights), Article 36-51 (directive principles of state policy).

Q20. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mandates that the state should protect every monument or place of artistic or historic interest?

(A) Article 39A
(B) Article 50
(C) Article 49
(D) Article 48A

Answer: (C) Article 49

Explanation: Articles 49. Part IV: Directive Principle of State Policy (Article 36-51). Article 45 – Provision for free and compulsory education for children below the age of six years. Article 48A – Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.

Q21. Which of the following statements s not correct about the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(A) To ensure the above mentioned employment and clean working environment for men, women and children.
(B) Providing adequate means of livelihood for both men and women
(C) Ensuring equal remuneration for equal work only for men
(D) Reorganizing the economic system to prevent concentration of wealth in a few hands

Answer: (C) Ensuring equal remuneration for equal work only for men

Explanation: Part IV {Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36-51)}. It is imported from the Ireland Constitution. Article 46 – Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections.

Q22. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years?

(A) Article 45
(B) Article 39
(C) Article 38
(D) Article 40

Answer: (A) Article 45

Explanation: Article 45. Article 38 – State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people. Article 40 – Organisation of village panchayats.

Q23. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution prohibits forced abour and prevents exploitation ?

(A) Article 20
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 25
(D) Article 23

Answer: (D) Article 23

Explanation: Article 23. Article 19 – Freedom of Speech and Expression. Article 25 – It guarantees the freedom of conscience, the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion to all citizens.

Q24. In India which of the following is a Gandhian principle of Directive Principles of State Policy ?

(A) To Separate judiciary from executive
(B) To organise village panchayat
(C) To secure uniform civil code
(D) To provide equal pay for equal work

Answer: (B) To organise village panchayat

Explanation: Article based on Gandhian principles : 40 – Organise village panchayats. 43 – Living wage, etc., for workers. 43B – To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control of cooperative societies. 46 – promote educational and economic interests of the weaker sections. 47 – To improve public health. 48 – To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) – Part IV , Article (36 to 51). Taken From – Ireland. Other Groups – Socialist Principle – Article (38, 39, 41, 42, 43, 43A, 47). Liberal-Intellecutal Principle – Article (44, 45, 48, 48A, 49, 50, 51).

Q25. Which of the following Articles says that double jeopardy which says that “no person shall be prosecuted or punished for the same offence more than once?

(A) Article 21 (2)
(B) Article 19 (1)
(C) Article 20 (2)
(D) Article 22 (2)

Answer: (C) Article 20 (2)

Explanation: Article 20 (2). Article 20 of the Constitution provides for the protection of conviction for offences. Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty. Article 19 (1) – The right to freedom of speech and expression. Article 22 – Protection Against Arrest and Detention in Certain Cases.

Q26. Under which Article of the Directive Principles of State Policy, a working woman on maternity leave, must receive all maternity benefits from the employer?

(A) Article 42
(B) Article 44
(C) Article 45
(D) Article 43

Answer: (A) Article 42

Explanation: Article 42. Directive Principles of State Policy (Part-IV, Articles 36 – 51) are borrowed from Ireland. They are non-justiciable rights (which means that they cannot be enforced by a Court of Law). Article 43 – The State shall endeavour to secure all workers a living wage and a decent standard of life.

Q27. Which of the following articles says that ‘It shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years’ ?

(A) 51A(k)
(B) 51A(j)
(C) 51A(i)
(D) 51A(h)

Answer: (A) 51A(k)

Explanation: 51A Fundamental Duties (PART IVA): 51A (a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem. 51A (h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform. 51A (i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence. 51A (j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

Q28. X and Y are working as managers in a restaurant but they receive unequal pay for the same work. Which Article of the Directive Principles of State Policy provides for equal pay for equal work ?

(A) Article 38
(B) Article 41
(C) Article 39
(D) Article 40

Answer: (C) Article 39

Explanation: Part IV {Directive Principle of State Policy (Articles 36 – 51)}. Article 41 – Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases.

Q29. The government scheme, Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana aims for crop insurance service for farmers. This type of government efforts falls under________ of the Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution.

(A) Article 47
(B) Article 45
(C) Article 48
(D) Article 46

Answer: (C) Article 48

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFBY) – Launched on 18th February 2016 by the Prime Minister. Objectives: To provide insurance coverage and financial support to the farmers in the event of failure of any of the notified crops as a result of natural calamities, pests and diseases.

Q30. Since complete equality is impossible, __ of the Indian Constitution deals with the right to equality and equal protection of law subject to appropriate classification. Equal protection subject to appropriate classification.

(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 13
(D) Article 14

Answer: (D) Article 14

Explanation: Article 13 – Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights.

Q31. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions the right to form co-operative societies?

(A) 19 (1) (d)
(B) 19 (1) (c)
(C) 19 (1) (b)
(D) 19 (1) (a)

Answer: (B) 19 (1) (c)

Explanation: Article 19(1)(d) – To move freely throughout the territory of India. Article 19(1)(b) – To assemble peaceably and without arms. Article 19(1)(a) – Freedom of speech and expression. Article 19(1)(e) – To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

Q32. A father was speaking about the rich cultural heritage of India to his young son and his teenager friends. The fundamental duty in which Article was the father promoting

(A) Article 51A (f)
(B) Article 51A (e)
(C) Article 51A (d)
(D) Article 51A (c)

Answer: (A) Article 51A (f)

Explanation: Article 51A (e) – To promote harmony and brotherhood among the people of a different religion. Article 51A (d) – Defend the country and provide national service when called upon to do so. Article 51A (c) – Maintain and protect India’s sovereignty, unity, and integrity.

Q33. The Fundamental Rights have been guaranteed to protect the public from repressive state actions; judicial decisions tend to expand the scope of the word “State” as defined by __ of the Indian Constitution.

(A) Article 12
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 13

Answer: (A) Article 12

Explanation: Article 12.

Q34. The working conditions also include prevention of sexual harassment of working women and making arrangements in the organisation for it, this falls under______________ .

(A) Article 44
(B) Article 42
(C) Article 45
(D) Article 43

Answer: (B) Article 42

Explanation: Article 42: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), Articles 36-51, Part-IV. Article 39A: To provide free legal aid to the poor. Article 45 – Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

Q35. Which of the following sets of articles is related with the feature of Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution?

(A) 352 to 360
(B) 309 to 312
(C) 343 to 351
(D) 330 to 342

Answer: (A) 352 to 360

Explanation: 352 to 360. National Emergency (Article 352): There is a threat of war – from external aggression or armed rebellion. President’s Rule (Article 356): If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Financial Emergency (Article 360): President is satisfied that the financial stability of India is threatened.

Q36. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution which states India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States, mentions which of the following features?

(A) Independence of the Judiciary
(B) Cooperative Federalism
(C) Secularism
(D) Parliamentary sovereignty

Answer: (B) Cooperative Federalism

Explanation: Cooperative Federalism – A concept of a stable relationship between the centre and state governments to coordinate on issues of common interests. Example – India is a federal country with power divided between the Centre and the States. The word ‘Federal’ is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. Granville Austin called Indian federalism ‘Cooperative federalism’. India borrowed the concept of a federal system with a strong centre from Canada.

Q37. Which of the following Articles about fundamental duties is related to the respect of the National Anthem?

(A) Article 51A
(B) Article 51A (c)
(C) Article 51A (a)
(D) Article 51A (d)

Answer: (C) Article 51A (a)

Explanation: Article 51A (a). The Swaran Singh Committee emphasised the importance of incorporating fundamental duties into the Indian Constitution, urging citizens to recognize their rights and responsibilities. “Jana Gana Mana” (National Anthem of India), was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 24 January 1950 and is the first stanza of Rabindranath Tagore’s Bengali hymn ‘Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata’.

Q38. ‘The state shall endeavour to secure to all workers a living wage and a decent standard of life’. Which of the following is correct about the given statement in the context of india?

(A) It is mentioned in the 43rd Article of the Constitution.
(B) It is mentioned in the 44th Article of Constitution.
(C) This is a Gandhian principle of Directive Principles of State Policy.
(D) This is a liberal principle of Directive Principles of State Policy.

Answer: (A) It is mentioned in the 43rd Article of the Constitution.

Explanation: Article 43 (Living wage, etc., for workers). Directive Principles of State Policy ( Part IV, Article 36 – 51). Borrowed from – Irish Constitution.

Q39. Which of the following articles is related to the provision of Co-operative Societies in the Indian Constitution?

(A) 243 ZG to 243 ZJ
(B) 243 P to 243 ZG
(C) 243 ZH to 243 ZT
(D) 243 A to 243

Answer: (C) 243 ZH to 243 ZT

Explanation: 243 ZH to 243 ZT. Co-operative Societies – A form of business organisation that is formed with the objective of helping the society members. Under 97th Amendment Act 2011, the right to form cooperative societies was included as Right to Freedom {Article 19(1)(c)}. Promotion of Cooperation societies was inserted as one of the DPSPs (Article 43-B).

Q40. The government is bound to ensure observance of social welfare and labour laws enacted to secure for workmen a life compatible with human dignity, under _ of the Indian Constitution.

(A) Article 17
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 21

Answer: (D) Article 21

Explanation: Article 21. Part III – Fundamental Rights (Article 12-35) : Right to Equality (Article 14 -18). Right to Freedom (Article 19 – 22). Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24). Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28). Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30). Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32 – 35). Article17 – Abolition of Untouchability.

Q41. In the Indian Constitution which of the following Articles deals with the right to move to the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental rights ?

(A) Article 30
(B) Article 32
(C) Article 33
(D) Article 31

Answer: (B) Article 32

Explanation: Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) – The ‘Heart and Soul of the Constitution’ by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. Article 31 – Compulsory acquisition of property. This Article was deleted from Part-III of the Constitution by the Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978, and a modified version was inserted as Article 300A.

Q42. Poshan Abhiyaan is a programme to achieve nutritional status of children from 0 to 6 years. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for raising the nutrition level?

(A) Article 47
(B) Article 44
(C) Article 46
(D) Article 45

Answer: (A) Article 47

Explanation: Article 47 – Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health comes under Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36-51 under Part-IV).

Q43. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution has the idea that ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment?

(A) Article 22
(B) Article 24
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 20

Answer: (B) Article 24

Explanation: Article 24. Article 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. Article 19 – Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.

Q44. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution are related to citizenship ?

(A) Articles 15 to 21
(B) Articles 5 to 11
(C) Articles 2 to 4
(D) Articles 25 to 31

Answer: (B) Articles 5 to 11

Explanation: Article 5 to 11 (Part II). Article 5 – Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution. Article 6 – Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Article 7 – Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan. Article 8 – Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India. Article 9 – Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State not to be citizens. Article 10 – Continuance of the rights of citizenship. Article 11 – Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law.

Q45. KA Najeeb Vs Union of India case deals with violation of rights under_____

(A) Article 16
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 19

Answer: (C) Article 21

Explanation: Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty). Important Cases related to Article 21: A.K Gopalan vs the State of Madras 1950 : The Supreme court has taken a narrow interpretation of Article 21 in this case. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India, 1978: In this case, the SC overruled its judgement of the Gopalan Case by taking a wider interpretation of Article 21.

Q46. Which part of the Constitution of India contains the provisions of the Union Executive?

(A) Part V
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part VI

Answer: (A) Part V

Explanation: Part V:- The Union, Articles (52 – 151): Articles (52 – 62) – President. Articles (63 – 73) – Vice-president. Article 78 – Duties of the Prime Minister as respects the furnishing of information to the President, etc. Articles (74 – 75) – Council of Ministers. Article 76 – Attorney -General for India. Article (112 – 117) – Procedure in Financial Matters Part III – Fundamental Rights (Article 12 to 35), Part IV – Directive Principle of State Policy (Article – 36 to 51), Part VI – The States (Article 152 to 237).

Q47. Fundamental duties were not placed in Part III of the Indian Constitution because Part III is_________.

(A) non-justiciable
(B) not enforceable
(C) absolute
(D) justiciable

Answer: (D) justiciable

Explanation: Justiciable. Part III Article (12-35): Fundamental Rights. Part – IV A (Article 51A): Fundamental duties – Added by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976).

Q48. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for a bicameral Parliament of India?

(A) Article 49
(B) Article 59
(C) Article 79
(D) Article 89

Answer: (C) Article 79

Explanation: Article 79 :- Constitution of Parliament – There shall be a Parliament of the Union consisting of the President and two Houses known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha, Article 80) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha, Article 81). Article 49 – Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance. Article 59 – Conditions of the President’s office. Article 89 – The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States.

Q49. As per Article 172 (2)_______of a State shall NOT be subject to dissolution.

(A) Legislative Assembly
(B) House of People
(C) Legislative Council
(D) Council of States

Answer: (C) Legislative Council

Explanation: Legislative Council (Saasana Mandali) – It is the upper house in those states of India that have a bicameral state legislature. Six States have a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka. The State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) – A legislative body in the states and union territories of India. Council of States (Rajya Sabha). House of People (Lok Sabha).

Q50. Article 323 of the Indian Constitution deals with __ .

(A) expenses of Public Services Commissions
(B) power to extend functions of Public Services Commissions
(C) functions of Public Services Commissions
(D) reports of Public Services Commissions

Answer: (D) reports of Public Services Commissions

Explanation: reports of Public Services Commissions. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of Union Public Service Commission ((UPSC) and State Public Service Commission(SPSC).The UPSC Chairman is appointed for a period of six years or till the age of 65 years, He is appointed by the President of India and can also be removed by him. In case the Chairman wants to resign, he can tender the resignation to the President.

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